Well we can just use F=ma. The force is 10N, the mass is 50 kg, solve for a. Well since we kg and N, no conversion is necessary. So just plugging in the numbers, we get
10N = 50 kg · a

A newton is just 

The s^2 and 50 kg you multiply

The kg's cancel and 10/50 is 1/5

So the acceleration is 1/5 m/s^2
Answer:False
Explanation:
Work is being done on a body when it causes displacement of body on the application of force

When we pull the door by a force it causes zero displacements of the door. So we can say that work done on it is zero.
Thus the above-given statement is false
Answer:
The final velocity of the object is,
= 27 m/s
Explanation:
Given,
The acceleration of the object, a = 1000 m/s²
The initial displacement of the object,
= 0 m
The final displacement of the object,
= 0.75 m
The initial velocity of the object will be,
= o m/s
The final velocity of the object,
= ?
The average velocity of the object,
v = (
-
)/ t
= 0.75 / t
The acceleration is given by the relation
a = v / t
1000 m/s² = 0.75 / t²
t² = 7.5 x 10⁻⁴
t = 0.027 s
Using the I equation of motion,
= u + at
Substituting the values
= 0 + 1000 x 0.027
= 27 m/s
Hence, the final velocity of the object is,
= 27 m/s
Answer:
The coefficient of friction is 0.38.
Explanation:
The free body diagram is drawn below.
Let
be frictional force acting in the backward direction as shown. Let the coefficient of friction be
. Let
be the normal reaction force acting on the bag.
Given:
Mass of the bag is, 
Force acting at
° is 
Acceleration due to gravity is, 
The force F can be resolved into its components as
and 
Therefore,

Now, as there is no acceleration in vertical direction, therefore,
Sum of upward forces = Sum of downward forces

Now, as the bag is moving at a constant speed, so acceleration in the horizontal direction is also zero as acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
Therefore, backward force = forward force.

Now, frictional force is given as:

Therefore, the coefficient of friction is 0.38.
.Explanation:
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