The bicyclist accelerates with magnitude <em>a</em> such that
25.0 m = 1/2 <em>a</em> (4.90 s)²
Solve for <em>a</em> :
<em>a</em> = (25.0 m) / (1/2 (4.90 s)²) ≈ 2.08 m/s²
Then her final speed is <em>v</em> such that
<em>v</em> ² - 0² = 2<em>a</em> (25.0 m)
Solve for <em>v</em> :
<em>v</em> = √(2 (2.08 m/s²) / (25.0 m)) ≈ 10.2 m/s
Convert to mph. If you know that 1 m ≈ 3.28 ft, then
(10.2 m/s) • (3.28 ft/m) • (1/5280 mi/ft) • (3600 s/h) ≈ 22.8 mi/h
The answer is b) venus because the period rotation is also referred to as a day so if venus’ period of rotation is 243 [earth] days and its year is 225 [earth] days, then the period of rotation is longer.
Answer:
1000N
Explanation:
Based on force=mass*acceleration, if the acceleration is constant at 2 metres per second squared, 1,000kg*2m/s^2=2,000N of force.
If the acceleration steadily increases to 2m/s^2 in 20 seconds, take the average which is 1m/s^2 therefore force=1,000N
I took this test and the correct answer is c
I hope this helps
The mechanical advantage of a machine is the ratio of the force produced by the machine to the force applied to it. Therefore, we may calculate the applied force using:
Mechanical advantage = force by machine / force applied
6 = 2 / force applied
Force applied = 1/3
Thus, the distance that the effort must move will be 1/3 inch