Answer:
D.
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(a)]= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%28a%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%20a%7D%5Cfrac%7Bf%28x%29-f%28a%29%7D%7Bx-a%7D%7D)
Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(1)]= \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\ln(x+1)-\ln(2)}{x-1}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%281%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%201%7D%5Cfrac%7B%5Cln%28x%2B1%29-%5Cln%282%29%7D%7Bx-1%7D%7D)
Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).
The answer will thus be D.
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Answer:
0.4 of the chocolate bar.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
-84i - 12i
Step-by-step explanation:
The distributive property is: a(b+c) = ab + ac
In this case, we have -6i(-14i+2)
-6i = a
-14i = b
2 = c
-6i(-14i+2) = -6i(-14i) + -6i(2)
= 84i^2 - 12i
= -84 - 12i
Answer:
.
Step-by-step explanation:
The given expression is

We need to simplify the expression such that answer should contain only positive exponents with no fractional exponents in the denominator.
Using properties of exponents, we get
![[\because a^ma^n=a^{m+n}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cbecause%20a%5Ema%5En%3Da%5E%7Bm%2Bn%7D%5D)

![[\because a^{-n}=\dfrac{1}{a^n}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cbecause%20a%5E%7B-n%7D%3D%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7Ba%5En%7D%5D)

We can not simplify further because on further simplification we get negative exponents in numerator or fractional exponents in the denominator.
Therefore, the required expression is
.