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boyakko [2]
3 years ago
11

What effect would increasing the number of loops in a coil of wire have on an elctromagnet

Physics
2 answers:
Alecsey [184]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It would increase the level of magnetism

Explanation:

so yeah did that help

zalisa [80]3 years ago
4 0
It would increase the magnetism. Did that help??
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A steel ball with mass m is suspended from the ceiling at the bottom end of a light, 17.0-m-long rope. The ball swings back and
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

1. 18.25 m/s

2. 0 m/s

Explanation:

1.So the centripetal acceleration of the ball at this lowest point must be, taking gravity into account

a_c = \frac{T - mg}{m} = \frac{3mg - mg}{m} = 2g

The speed at this point would then be

v^2 = a_c r = 2gr = 2*9.8*17 = 333.2

v = \sqrt{333.2} = 18.25 m/s

2. Similarly, if T = mg, then the centripetal acceleration must be

a_c = \frac{T - mg}{m} = \frac{mg - mg}{m} = 0

As the ball has no centripetal acceleration, its speed must also be 0 as well.

6 0
4 years ago
An average human weighs about 600 N. If two such generic humans each carried 1.5 coulomb of excess charge, one positive and one
MakcuM [25]

Answer:If two such generichumans each carried 1.0 coulomb of excess charge, one posit... ... Charge, One Positive Andone Negative, How Far Apart Would They Have To Be For The Electricattraction Between Them To Equal Their 650-N Weight? ... 21.5 An average human weighs about 650 N. If two such generichumans ...

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
According to the momentum principle, the change in momentum of an object equals the impulse, which depends on______
3241004551 [841]

Answer: The momentum principle depends on MASS and VELOCITY.

Explanation:

The momentum principle states that net force changes the the momentum of an object where momentum is the product of the MASS of the body and it's VELOCITY.

Thus, momentum = mass(kg) ×velocity( m/s)= kgm/s ( derived unit)

Also to determine the rate of change of momentum;

Mass=m, initial velocity =u, final velocity = V and time =t

Initial momentum = mu

Final momentum = mv

Change in momentum = mv - mu

= m( v- u)

Rate of change of momentum=

m( v -u)/t --> equation 1

But V = u + at

Hence, a = v -u/t

Substitute for v -u/ t in equation 1

F = Kma, where k is constant and has the value of 1.

Therefore F = ma

Newton is the SI unit if force. It is defined as the force which gives a mass of 1kg an acceleration of 1 m/s².

IMPULSE is defined as the change of momentum of a body (mv-mu) or the product of force and time.

Thus impulse = force × time = m (v-u)

The unit is Ns ( Newton seconds) which is the same as change in momentum.

3 0
3 years ago
A bar magnet is dropped from above and falls through the loop of wire. The north pole of the bar magnet points downward towards
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

<em>b. The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction.</em>

<em></em>

Explanation:

When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. This induced current is due to the motion of the magnet through the loop, which cause a change in the flux linkage of the magnet. According to Lenz law, the induced current acts in such a way as to repel the force or action that produces it. For this magnet, the only opposition possible is to stop its fall by inducing a like pole on the wire loop to repel its motion down. An induced current that flows counterclockwise in the wire loop has a polarity that is equivalent to a north pole on a magnet, and this will try to repel the motion of the magnet through the coil. Also, when the magnet goes pass the wire loop, this induced north pole will try to attract the south end of the magnet, all in a bid to stop its motion downwards.

3 0
3 years ago
A pool ball moving 1.33 m/s strikes an identical ball at rest. Afterward, the first ball moves 0.750 m/s at a 33.30 angle. What
kramer

Explanation:

We need to apply the conservation law of linear momentum to two dimensions:

Let p_{1} = momentum of the 1st ball

p_{2} = momentum of the 2nd ball

In the x-axis, the conservation law can be written as

(p_{1} \cos \theta_{1})_{i} + (p_{2} \cos \theta_{2})_{i} = (p_{1} \cos \theta_{1})_{f} + (p_{2} \cos \theta_{2})_{f}

or

(m_{1}v_{1})_{i}= (m_{1}v_{1}\cos \theta_{1})_{f} + (m_{2}v_{2}\cos \theta_{2})_{f}

Since we are dealing with identical balls, all the m terms cancel out so we are left with

(v_{1})_{i} = (v_{1})_{f}\cos \theta_{1} +  (v_{2})_{f}\cos \theta_{2}

Putting in the numbers, we get

1.33 = (0.750) \cos(33.30)  + (v_{2})_{f} \cos \theta_{2}

=  > (v_{2})_{f} \cos \theta_{2} = 0.703

In the y-axis, there is no initial y-component of the momentum before the collision so we can write

0 = (v_{1}\sin \theta_{1})_{f} + (v_{2}\sin \theta_{2})_{f}

or

=  > (v_{2})_{f} \sin \theta_{2} = (0.750) \sin(33.30)  = 0.412

Taking the ratio of the sine equation to the cosine equation, we get

\frac{ \sin \theta _{2}}{ \cos \theta_{2} }  =  \tan \theta_{2}  =  \frac{0.412}{0.703}  = 0.586

or

\theta_{2}  =  { \tan}^{ - 1} (0.586) = 30.4

Solving now for (v_{2})_{f},

(v_{2})_{f}  =  \frac{0.412}{ \sin(30.4) }  = 0.815 \:  \frac{m}{s}

3 0
3 years ago
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