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ASHA 777 [7]
3 years ago
8

What Electromagnetic has a shorter wavelength

Physics
2 answers:
sesenic [268]3 years ago
8 0
And X rays have even shorter ...
True [87]3 years ago
3 0
The electromagnetic that has a shorter wavelength is ultraviolet (UV)
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Which of the following best defines the science of separating color wavelengths?
Mice21 [21]
Answer: spectroscopy

Spectroscopy is the separation of the light in the different wavelengths and spectrophotometry measures the intensities of the different components of the light to get the composition of substances.
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3 years ago
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A uniform rod of mass 1.90 kg and length 2.00 m is capable of rotating about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicula
astraxan [27]

Complete Question:

A uniform rod of mass 1.90 kg and length 2.00 m is capable of rotating about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its length. A mass m1 = 5.40 kgis  attached to one end and a second mass m2 = 2.50 kg is attached to the other end of the rod. Treat the two masses as point particles.

(a) What is the moment of inertia of the system?

(b) If the rod rotates with an angular speed of 2.70 rad/s, how much kinetic energy does the system have?

(c) Now consider the rod to be of negligible mass. What is the moment of inertia of the rod and masses combined?

(d) If the rod is of negligible mass, what is the kinetic energy when the angular speed is 2.70 rad/s?

Answer:

a) 8.53 kg*m² b) 31.1 J c) 7.9 kg*m² d) 28.8 J

Explanation:

a) If we treat to the two masses as point particles, the rotational inertia of each mass will be the product of the mass times the square of the distance to the axis of rotation, which is exactly the half of the length of the rod.

As the mass has not negligible mass, we need to add the rotational inertia of the rod regarding an axis passing through its centre, and perpendicular to its length.

The total rotational inertia will be as follows:

I = M*L²/12 + m₁*r₁² + m₂*r₂²

⇒ I =( 1.9kg*(2.00)²m²/12) + 5.40 kg*(1.00)²m² + 2.50 kg*(1.00)m²

⇒ I =  8.53 kg*m²

b)  The rotational kinetic energy of the rigid body composed by the rod and  the point masses m₁ and m₂, can be expressed as follows:

Krot = 1/2*I*ω²

if ω= 2.70 rad/sec, and I = 8.53 kg*m², we can calculate Krot as follows:

Krot = 1/2*(8.53 kg*m²)*(2.70)²(rad/sec)²

⇒ Krot = 31.1 J

c) If the mass of the rod is negligible, we can remove its influence of the rotational inertia, as follows:

I = m₁*r₁² + m₂*r₂² = 5.40 kg*(1.00)²m² + 2.50 kg*(1.00)m²

I = 7.90 kg*m²

d) The new rotational kinetic energy will be as follows:

Krot = 1/2*I*ω² = 1/2*(7.9 kg*m²)*(2.70)²(rad/sec)²

Krot= 28.8 J

7 0
2 years ago
A force of 350N is applied to a body. If the work done is 40kJ, what is the distance through which the body moved?
Studentka2010 [4]

The distance covered by the body is 114.3 m

Explanation:

The work done by a force exerted on an object is given by

W=Fd cos \theta

where

F is the magnitude of the force

d is the displacement of the object

\theta is the angle between the direction of the force and of the displacement

For the object in this problem, we have

F = 350 N is the force applied

W=40 kJ = 40,000 J is the work done

\theta=0^{\circ} if we assume that the force is applied parallel to the motion of the object

Solving for d, we find the distance covered by the object:

d=\frac{W}{F cos \theta}=\frac{40,000}{(350)(cos 0)}=114.3 m

Learn more about work:

brainly.com/question/6763771

brainly.com/question/6443626

#LearnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me ASAP
Phantasy [73]

Well I don't know.  Let's actually LOOK at the picture and see if that helps.

A,  B,  C,  and D all have the same TOTAL length, but  A  has the most waves crammed into that same total length.

By golly, that means the length of <u><em>each</em></u> wave in  A  must be shorter than each wave in  B,  C,  or D.

The correct choice is <em> A </em>.  Looking at the picture did the trick !

7 0
2 years ago
The vapor pressure of benzene, C6H6, is 40.1 mmHg at 7.6°C. What is its vapor pressure at 60.6°C? The molar heat of vaporization
ANEK [815]

Answer:

The vapor pressure at 60.6°C is 330.89 mmHg

Explanation:

Applying Clausius Clapeyron Equation

ln(\frac{P_2}{P_1}) = \frac{\delta H}{R}[\frac{1}{T_1}- \frac{1}{T_2}]

Where;

P₂ is the final vapor pressure of benzene = ?

P₁ is the initial vapor pressure of benzene = 40.1 mmHg

T₂ is the final temperature of benzene = 60.6°C = 333.6 K

T₁ is the initial temperature of benzene = 7.6°C = 280.6 K

ΔH is the molar heat of vaporization of benzene = 31.0 kJ/mol

R is gas rate = 8.314 J/mol.k

ln(\frac{P_2}{40.1}) = \frac{31,000}{8.314}[\frac{1}{280.6}- \frac{1}{333.6}]\\\\ln(\frac{P_2}{40.1}) = 3728.65 (0.003564 - 0.002998)\\\\ln(\frac{P_2}{40.1}) = 3728.65  (0.000566)\\\\ln(\frac{P_2}{40.1}) = 2.1104\\\\\frac{P_2}{40.1} = e^{2.1104}\\\\\frac{P_2}{40.1} = 8.2515\\\\P_2 = (40.1*8.2515)mmHg = 330.89 mmHg

Therefore, the vapor pressure at 60.6°C is 330.89 mmHg

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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