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vichka [17]
3 years ago
15

What is magnetic declination?

Physics
2 answers:
Snowcat [4.5K]3 years ago
8 0
<h3>The answer is B. I know because I took the test and got a 100%</h3>
sdas [7]3 years ago
5 0
I believe its B ,<span> (the direction the north end of a </span>compass<span> needle points, corresponding to the direction of the Earth's </span>magnetic<span> field lines)</span>
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PLEASE HELP!!! 20 PIONTS!!!
timama [110]

Answer:

Transverse waves are always characterized by particle motion being perpendicular to wave motion. A longitudinal wave is a wave in which particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction that the wave moves.

Explanation:

The movement of the medium is different. In the longitudinal wave, the medium moves left to right, while in thee transverse wave, the medium moves vertically up and down. Longitudinal waves have a compression and rarefaction, while the transverse wave has a crest and a trough. Longitudinal waves have a pressure variation, transverse waves don't have pressure variation. Longitudinal waves can be propagated in solids, liquids and gases, transverse waves can only be propagated in solids and on the surfaces of liquids. Longitudinal waves have a change in density throughout the medium, transverse waves don't.

4 0
2 years ago
A car of mass 800kg travels a distance of 40m at constant speed in a duration of 2.0s. The car exerts a forward force of 15kN.
Alex17521 [72]

W = F × s

W = 15kN × 40 m

W = 15.000 N × 40 m

W = 600.000 J

P = W/t

P = 600.000 J/2 s

P = 300.000 Watt

P = 300kWatt

#LearnWithEXO

6 0
3 years ago
A nasa spacecraft measures the rate r of at which atmospheric pressure on mars decreases with altitude. the result at a certain
Lesechka [4]

Answer:4.21 \times 10^{-10} J/cm^4

1 kPa= 10^3 Pa

1 km=10^5 cm

1kPa/km=0.01 Pa/cm

1kPa/km=10^{-8} J/cm^4

\Rightarrow r= 0.0421 kPa/km= 0.0421 kPa/km \times \frac{10^{-8} J/cm^4}{1 kPa/km}= 0.0421 \times 10^{-8}J/cm^4=4.21 \times 10^{-10} J/cm^4

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
ear the end of a marathon race, the first two runners are separated by a distance of 45.0 m. The front runner has a velocity of
sesenic [268]

Answer:

a) V_{2/1}=0.8m/s

b) The second runner will win

c) d = 10.54m

Explanation:

For part (a):

V_{2/1} = V_{2} - V_{1} = 0.8m/s

For part (b) we will calculate the amount of time that takes both runners to cross the finish line:

t_{1} = \frac{X_{1}}{V_{1}}=\frac{250}{3.45}=72.46s

t_{2} = \frac{X_{2}}{V_{2}}=\frac{250+45}{4.25}=69.41s

Since it takes less time to the second runner to cross the finish line, we can say the she won the race.

For part (c), we know how much time it takes the second runner to win, so we just need the position of the first runner in that moment:

X1 = V1*t2 = 239.46m  Since the finish line was 250m away:

d = 250m - 239.46m = 10.54m

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is a net force on an object that has a mass of 20.0 kg, an applied force of 100 n moving on a surface with a friction coeff
sergiy2304 [10]

The net force on the object as described is; 58.84N

Two forces acting on the object are;

  • The <em>applied force and the frictional force.</em>

In essence; the frictional force can be evaluated as;

  • Frictional force; = coefficient × Weight of object.

  • Frictional force = 0.21 × 20 × 9.8.

  • Frictional force = 41.16N

  • The Net force = Applied force - frictional force

  • Net force = 100 - 41.16N

Net Force = 58.84 N.

Read more:

brainly.com/question/94428

5 0
2 years ago
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