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3 years ago

14

Suppose you are swimming underwater in a lake and a sound is made 1,000 meters away from you. How long would it take for the sou

nd waves to reach your ears? Would they reach you faster or slower if you were swimming in the ocean? Why?

1 answer:

podryga [215]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

0.667 s; faster in the ocean

Explanation:

Since the sound wave travels with a uniform motion (= at constant velocity), the time it takes to reach your ear will be given by the formula

$t=\frac{d}{v}$

where

d is the distance it has to cover

v is the speed of the sound wave

Here we have

d = 1000 m is the distance

v = 1500 m/s is the approximate speed of sound in fresh water

Substituting,

$t=\frac{1000}{1500}=0.667 s$

We also want to compare the time if you are swimming in the ocean.

In the ocean, due to the higher density of the water (because of the presence of the salt), the speed of sound is slightly larger, in fact it is:

$v=1531 m/s$

Therefore, the time taken in this case will be:

$t=\frac{1000}{1531}=0.653 s$

Therefore, the sound will reach your ear a bit faster.

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g a small smetal sphere, carrying a net charge is held stationarry. what is the speed are 0.4 m apart

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Complete Question

A small metal sphere, carrying a net charge q1=−2μC, is held in a stationary position by insulating supports. A second small metal sphere, with a net charge of q2= -8μC and mass 1.50g, is projected toward q1. When the two spheres are 0.80m apart, q2 is moving toward q1 with speed 20ms−1. Assume that the two spheres can be treated as point charges. You can ignore the force of gravity.The speed of q2 when the spheres are 0.400m apart is.

Answer:

The value $v_2 = 4 \sqrt{10} \ m/s$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The charge on the first sphere is $q_1 = 2\mu C = 2*10^{-6} \ C$

The charge on the second sphere is $q_2 = 8 \mu C = 8*10^{-6} \ C$

The mass of the second charge is $m = 1.50 \ g = 1.50 *10^{-3} \ kg$

The distance apart is $d = 0.4 \ m$

The speed of the second sphere is $v_1 = 20 \ ms^{-1}$

Generally the total energy possessed by when $q_2$ and $q_1$ are separated by $0.8 \ m$ is mathematically represented

$Q = KE + U$

Here KE is the kinetic energy which is mathematically represented as

$KE = \frac{1 }{2} m (v_1)^2$

substituting value

$KE = \frac{1 }{2} * ( 1.50 *10^{-3}) (20 )^2$

$KE = 0.3 \ J$

And U is the potential energy which is mathematically represented as

$U = \frac{k * q_1 * q_2 }{d }$

substituting values

$U = \frac{9*10^9 * 2*10^{-6} * 8*10^{-6} }{0.8 }$

$U = 0.18 \ J$

So

$Q = 0.3 + 0.18$

$Q = 0.48 \ J$

Generally the total energy possessed by when $q_2$ and $q_1$ are separated by $0.4 \ m$ is mathematically represented

$Q_f = KE_f + U_f$

Here $KE_f$ is the kinetic energy which is mathematically represented as

$KE_f = \frac{1 }{2} m (v_2^2$

substituting value

$KE_f = \frac{1 }{2} * ( 1.50 *10^{-3}) (v_2 )^2$

$KE_f = 7.50 *10^{ -4} (v_2 )^2$

And $U_f$ is the potential energy which is mathematically represented as

$U_f = \frac{k * q_1 * q_2 }{d }$

substituting values

$U_f = \frac{9*10^9 * 2*10^{-6} * 8*10^{-6} }{0.4 }$

$U_f = 0.36 \ J$

From the law of energy conservation

$Q = Q_f$

So

$0.48 = 0.36 +(7.50 *10^{-4} v_2^2)$

$v_2 = 4 \sqrt{10} \ m/s$

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Answer:

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v2: velocity of the pendulum =0m/s

v: velocity of both bullet ad pendulum joint

By replacing you can find v:

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$E_{fp}=E_{ki}\\\\(m+M)gh=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

g: 9.8/s^2

h: height

By doing h the subject of the equation and replacing you obtain:

$(0.038kg+4.2kg)(9.8m/s^2)h=\frac{1}{2}(0.038kg+4.2kg)(3.67m/s)^2\\\\h=0.68m$

hence, the heigth is 68cm

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