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larisa [96]
3 years ago
6

Anyone know this lmk ASAP !!!

Physics
1 answer:
Vesna [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:1. Transparent

2. Transparent

3. Opaque

Explanation: In a transparent medium light can pass through. For opaque objects it does not allow to pass through instead it is reflected back.

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While standing at the edge of the roof of a building, you throw a stone upward with an initial speed of 5.65 m/s. The stone subs
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

1. 20.54m/s

2. 1.52s

Explanation:

QUESTION 1:

The speed the stone impact the ground is the final speed/velocity, which can be calculated using the formula:

v² = u² + 2as

Where;

v = final velocity (m/s)

u = initial velocity (m/s)

a = acceleration due to gravity (m/s²)

s = distance (m)

From the provided information, u = 5.65m/s, v = ?, s = 19.9m, a = 9.8m/s²

v² = 5.65² + 2 (9.8 × 19.9)

v² = 31.9225 + 2 (195.02)

v² = 31.9225 + 390.04

v² = 421.9625

v = √421.9625

v = 20.5417

v = 20.54m/s

QUESTION 2:

Using v = u + at

Where v = final velocity (m/s) = 20.54m/s

t = time (s)

u = initial velocity (m/s) = 5.65m/s

a = acceleration due to gravity (m/s²)

v = u + at

20.54 = 5.65 + 9.8t

20.54 - 5.65 = 9.8t

14.89 = 9.8t

t = 14.89/9.8

t = 1.519

t = 1.52s

3 0
3 years ago
A uniform solid disk rolls without slipping down an incline making an angle θ with the horizontal. What is its acceleration? (En
Maru [420]

Answer:

aCM = (2/3)*g*Sin θ

Explanation:

Consider a uniform solid disk having mass M,  radius R and rotational inertia I  about its center of mass, rolling without  slipping down an inclined plane.

In order to get the linear acceleration of the object’s center of mass, aCM ,

down the incline,  we analyze this as follows:

The force of gravity (W = Mg) acting straight down  is resolved into components parallel and  perpendicular to the incline.

Since the object rolls without  slipping there is a force of  friction (Ff) acting on the object,  at it’s point of contact with the  incline, in the direction up  the incline.

Newton’s 2nd Law gives then for acceleration down the incline

∑Fx' = m*aCM   ⇒    m*g*Sin θ - Ff = m*aCM

The force of friction also causes a torque around the center of mass

having lever arm R so we can also write

τ = R*Ff = I*α

Solving for the friction,    Ff = I*α / R

This is used in the expression  derived from the 2nd Law:

m*g*Sin θ - Ff = m*g*Sin θ - (I*α / R) = m*aCM

The objects angular acceleration is related to the linear acceleration  of the edge that contacts the incline by

a = R*α

Since the object rolls without  slipping this has the same  magnitude as aCM so we have  that

α = aCM / R

Using this in

m*g*Sin θ - (I*α / R) = m*g*Sin θ - (I*(aCM / R) / R) = m*aCM

⇒  aCM = (m*g*Sin θ*R²) / (I + m*R²)

if I = (1/2)*m*R²   (for a uniform solid disk)

we get

aCM = (2/3)*g*Sin θ

6 0
3 years ago
Malika is writing an essay about the Sun. Below is the first paragraph in the essay. The Sun is an average-size star that is loc
djverab [1.8K]
The 109 Earth's the sun can hold over billion Earth's
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
As a pendulum bob swings back and forth several times, the maximum height it reaches becomes less and less.
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

A or B

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
in a certain experiment, a radio transmitter emits sinusoidal electromagnetic waves of frequency 105.0 mhz in opposite direction
Romashka [77]

As a result, the hollow is 10.90 meters long and the distance between the nodal planes is 1.36 meters.

<h3>Explain electromagnetic waves.</h3>

The oscillations between an electric field and a magnetic field produce waves known as electromagnetic waves, or EM waves.

By definition, we understand that the frequency equals,

f = c/λ

where,

λ = wavelength

c= Speed of light

λ = 2L / n

While the wavelength is equal to,

Where,

L = Length

n = Number of antinodes/nodes

PART A) We know that the first component's wavelength is 110 MHz, so

λ = c/ f

λ = 3*10^8 / 11*10^6

λ = 1.36m

Therefore the distance between the nodal planes is 1.36m

PART B) For this part we need to find the Length through the number of nodes (8) and the wavelength, that is,

λ` = 2l /n

L = 8*2.72/ 2

L = 10.90m

Therefore the length of the cavity is 10.90m.

To know more about electromagnetic waves visit:-

brainly.com/question/3101711

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
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