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schepotkina [342]
3 years ago
5

A linear accelerator uses alternating electric fields to accelerate electrons to close to the speed of light. A small number of

the electrons collide with a target, but a large majority pass through the target and impact a beam dump at the end of the accelerator. In one experiment the beam dump measured charge accumulating at a rate of -2.0 nC/s. How many electrons passed through the accelerator over 1.8 hours?
Physics
1 answer:
kobusy [5.1K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

8.1 x 10^13 electrons passed through the accelerator over 1.8 hours.

Explanation:

The total charge accumulated in 1.8 hours will be:

Total Charge = I x t = (-2.0 nC/s)(1.8 hrs)(3600 s/ 1 hr)

Total Charge = - 12960 nC = - 12.96 x 10^(-6) C

Since, the charge on one electron is e = - 1.6 x 10^(-19) C

Therefore, no. of electrons will be:

No. of electrons = Total Charge/Charge on one electron

No. of electrons = [- 12.96 x 10^(-6) C]/[- 1.6 x 10^(-19) C]

<u>No. of electrons = 8.1 x 10^13 electrons</u>

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Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

2u

Explanation:

2u

W = Vq

q = CV

W = V.CV

W = CV²

W/C = V²

V = √(W/C)

√(W1/C1) = √(W2/C2)

√(u/c) = √(x/2c)

x = 2u

8 0
3 years ago
The magnetic field produced by a long straight current-carrying wire is
alexdok [17]

Answer:

proportional to the current in the wire and inversely proportional to the distance from the wire.

Explanation:

The magnetic field produced by a long, straight current-carrying wire is given by:

B=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi r}

where

\mu_0 is the vacuum permeability

I is the current intensity in the wire

r is the distance from the wire

From the formula, we notice that:

- The magnitude of the magnetic field is directly proportional to I, the current

- The magnitude of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire, r

Therefore, correct option is

proportional to the current in the wire and inversely proportional to the distance from the wire.

8 0
3 years ago
Our milky way galaxy is 100000 lyly in diameter. a spaceship crossing the galaxy measures the galaxy's diameter to be a mere 1.
Sidana [21]

The speed of the spaceship relative to the galaxy is 0.99999995c.

A light-year measures distance rather than time (as the name might imply). A light-year is a distance a light beam travels in one year on Earth, which is roughly 6 trillion miles (9.7 trillion kilometers). One light-year equals 5,878,625,370,000 miles. Light moves at a speed of 670,616,629 mph (1,079,252,849 km/h) in a vacuum.We multiply this speed by the number of hours in a year to calculate the distance of a light-year (8,766).

The Milky way galaxy is 100,000 light years in diameter.

The galaxy's diameter is a mere 1. 0 ly.

We know that ;

L = L_0 \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2} }

L = 1 light year

L₀ = 100,000 light year

1 = 100,000 \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2} }

1 = 100,000 \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{(3*10^8)^2} }

\frac{1}{100,000}  = \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2} }

v = 0.999999995 c

Therefore, the speed of the spaceship relative to the galaxy is 0.99999995c.

Learn more about a light year here:

brainly.com/question/17423632

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
What will make two bar magnets repel each<br> other?
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The arrows always start at the magnet's north pole and point towards its south pole. When two like-poles point together, the arrows from the two magnets point in OPPOSITE directions and the field lines cannot join up. So the magnets will push apart
6 0
2 years ago
You are investigating how objects move when they are dropped from different heights. To collect your data, you drop a 1 kg weigh
ASHA 777 [7]

The time of motion of the 5 kg object will be the same as 1 kg since both objects are dropped from the same height.

The given parameters;

<em>Mass of the first object, m1 = 1 kg</em>

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The final velocity of the objects during the downward motion is calculated as follows;

v_f = v_0 + gt\\\\v_f = 0 + gt\\\\\v_f = gt

The time of motion of the object from the given height is calculated as;

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The time of motion of each object is independent of mass of the object.

Thus, the time of motion of the 5 kg object will be the same as 1 kg since both objects are dropped from the same height.

Learn more about time of motion here: brainly.com/question/2364404

3 0
2 years ago
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