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saw5 [17]
3 years ago
14

I don’t get how to do it

Chemistry
1 answer:
san4es73 [151]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Use the x method, cross over each charge.

Explanation:

K^{+1} and Br^{-1} the +1 and -1 cancel each other out, so it will be KBr

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Now, I am a medical student and we have never had to convert a BP (blood pressure) to atm from mmHg, only ever kPA. SO, I am going to take a guess here and say that when you do the work to solve this, you are going to convert the Systolic (upper #) which is the 145. You should get 0.190789 and then convert the Diastolic (lower #) which is 65. You should get 0.08552632.

So your fraction so to speak should read, 0.190789/0.08552632 or 0.190789 over 0.08552632

(Just to note that is way to low of a BP, although it is irrelevant) Best wishes and good luck. "Remember, never just look for the right answer, look for why it is the right answer!"

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