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3 years ago

Astronauts think planets formed from interstellar dust and gases that clumped together in a process called _

Physics

1 answer:

lora16 [44]3 years ago

8 0

planetary accretion is the term that is used

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An us bomber is flying horizontally at 300 mph at an altitude of 610 m. its target is an iraqi oil tanker crusing 25kph in the s

Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

=1419.19 meters.

Explanation:

The time it takes for the shell to drop to the tanker from the height, H =1/2gt²

610m=1/2×9.8×t²

t²=(610m×2)/9.8m/s²

t²=124.49s²

t=11.16 s

Therefore, it takes 11.16 seconds for a free fall from a height of 610m

Range= Initial velocity×time taken to hit the tanker.

R=v₁t

Lets change 300 mph to kph.

=300×1.60934 =482.802 kph

Relative velocity=482.802 kph-25 kph

=457.802 kph

Lets change 11.16 seconds to hours.

=11.16/(3600)

=0.0031 hours.

R=v₁t

=457.802 kph × 0.0031 hours.

=1.41918 km

=1.41919 km × 1000m/km

=1419.19 meters.

3 0

3 years ago

If a 2 x 10^-4C test charge is given 6.5J of energy, determine the electric potential difference.

Gwar [14]

Answer:

The electric potential difference is 32500 volt.

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge $q=2\times10^{-4}C$

Energy = 6.5 J

We need to calculate the electric potential difference

Potential difference :

Potential difference is equal to the energy divide by charge.

Using formula of potential difference

$V=\dfrac{E}{Q}$

$V=\dfrac{6.5}{2\times10^{-4}}$

$V=32500\ volt$

Hence, The electric potential difference is 32500 volt.

8 0

3 years ago

Molds belong to a group of plants called <br> a.yeast<br> b.fungi<br> c.viruses

Marat540 [252]

B. fungi

I hope this helps!

5 0

3 years ago

An electron that has a velocity with x component 2.6 × 106 m/s and y component 4.0 × 106 m/s moves through a uniform magnetic fi

Natasha2012 [34]

Explanation:

It is given that,

The horizontal and vertical component of velocity of an electron is:

$v=(2.6i+4j)\times 10^6\ m/s$

The magnetic field acting there is given by :

$B=(0.037i-0.17j)\ T$

(a) The magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron is given by :

$F=q(v\times B)$

q = e

$F=e(v\times B)$

$F=1.6\times 10^{-19}\times ((2.6i+4j)\times 10^6\times (0.037i-0.17j))$

$F=-1.6\times 10^{-19}\times (-0.442\cdot10^{6}-0.1702\cdot10^{6})\ kN$

$F=9.79\times 10^{-14}\ kN$

(b) We know that the charge on proton is :

$q=+1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C$

The magnetic force as same as for electron but the direction is opposite i.e.

$F=-9.79\times 10^{-14}\ kN$

Hence, this is the required solution.

4 0

3 years ago

Help with this please

quester [9]

Answer:

Explanation:

because because because

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers