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Nikolay [14]
3 years ago
12

Describe the relationship between the length and period of a pendulum in the language of direct proportions

Physics
1 answer:
Wittaler [7]3 years ago
3 0

The period of the pendulum is directly proportional to the square root of the length of the pendulum

Explanation:

The period of a simple pendulum is given by the equation

T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}

where

T is the period

L is the length of the pendulum

g is the acceleration of gravity

From the equation, we see that when the length of the pendulum increases, the period of the pendulum increases as the square root of L, T\propto \sqrt{L}. This means that

The period of the pendulum is directly proportional to the square root of the length of the pendulum

From the equation, we also notice that the period of a pendulum does not depend on its mass.

#LearnwithBrainly

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If two different theories describe experimental observations equally well, can one be said to be more valid than the other (assu
Andreas93 [3]

Answer:

No

Explanation:

In such situations we cannot determine which one is more valid as both serves the purpose well.

Two theories are carried out in different environment and circumstance keeping different parameters and one can opt for any number of ways to carry out that experiment but what matter at the end is the accuracy they bring.

Each of the theory is a new discovery and follows all the possible logical rules hence it is not possible to decide which one is more valid.

3 0
3 years ago
A solenoidal coil with 26 turns of wire is wound tightly around another coil with 350 turns. The inner solenoid is 20.0 cm long
noname [10]

Answer:

Part a)

\phi = 2.76 \times 10^{-7} T m^2

Part B)

M = 5.52 \times 10^{-5} H

Part C)

EMF = 0.1 V/s

Explanation:

Part a)

Magnetic field due to a long ideal solenoid is given by

B = \mu_0 n i

n = number of turns per unit length

n = \frac{N}{L}

n = \frac{350}{0.20}

n = 1750 turn/m

now we know that magnetic field due to solenoid is

B = (4\pi \times 10^{-7})(1750)(0.100)

B = 2.2 \times 10^{-4} T

Now magnetic flux due to this magnetic field is given by

\phi = B.A

\phi = (2.2 \times 10^{-4})(\pi r^2)

\phi = (2.2 \times 10^{-4})(\pi(0.02)^2)

\phi = 2.76 \times 10^{-7} T m^2

Part B)

Now for mutual inductance we know that

\phi_{total} = M i

\phi_{total} = N\phi

\phi_{total} = 20(2.76 \times 10^{-4})

\phi_{total} = 5.52 \times 10^{-6}

now we have

M = \frac{5.52 \times 10^{-6}}{0.100}

M = 5.52 \times 10^{-5} H

Part C)

As we know that induced EMF is given as

EMF = M \frac{di}{dt}

EMF = 5.52 \times 10^{-5} (1800)

EMF = 0.1 V/s

3 0
3 years ago
A point charge q1 is held stationary at the origin. A second charge q2 is placed at point a, and the electric potential energy o
likoan [24]

Answer:

U_{b}=+7.3*10^{-8}J

Explanation:

Given data

Electric potential at point a is Ua=5.4×10⁻⁸J

q₂ moves to point b where a negative work done on it  W_{a-b}=-1.9*10^{-8}J

Required

Electric potential energy Ub

Solution

When a particle moves from a point where the potential is Ua to a point where it is Ub the change in potential energy is equal to work done where the force exerted on the charge is conservative and work done is given by:

W_{a-b}=U_{a}-U_{b}\\U_{b}=U_{a}-W_{a-b}

Now  substitute the given values

So

U_{b}=5.4*10^{-8}J-(-1.9*10^{-8}J)\\U_{b}=+7.3*10^{-8}J

3 0
3 years ago
66 POINTS! Which is true about the four atoms shown in figures A, B, C, and D?
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

A and B are isotopes of one another but the same element

C and D are isotopes of one another but the same element

However, A and B have a different proton count than C and D, indicating different elements because the proton count is equivalent to the atomic number.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please left home at 8 AM to spend the day at in amusement park. He arrived at the park, which was 150 KM from his house, at 10 A
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

v=\frac{150km}{2h}=75\frac{km}{h}

Explanation:

We can use the equation for the speed

v=\frac{x}{t}

where x is the distance and t the time. In this case we know that the time spent was 2 hours and the distance was 150km. By replacing we have

v=\frac{150km}{2h}=75\frac{km}{h}

I hope this useful for you

regards

3 0
3 years ago
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