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2 years ago

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a train is moving 35m/s to the east. it speeds up to 42 m/s east over the course of 40 seconds. what is the trains acceleration?

1 answer:

lianna [129]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

0.175 m/s²

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 35 m/s

v = 42 m/s

t = 40 s

Find: a

v = at + v₀

42 m/s = a (40 s) + 35 m/s

a = 0.175 m/s²

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Find the period of the leg of a man who is 1.83 m in height with a mass of 67 kg. The moment of inertia of a cylinder rotating a

In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

$T = 1.108\,s$

Explanation:

The period of a physical pendulum is:

$T = \sqrt{\frac{I_{O}}{m\cdot g \cdot L} }$

$T=2\cdot \pi \sqrt{\frac{\frac{1}{3}\cdot m \cdot L^{2} }{m\cdot g\cdot L} }$

$T=2\cdot \pi \sqrt{\frac{L }{3\cdot g} }$

The length of the leg is approximately the height of the person:

$L = 0.915\,m$

The period is:

$T = 2\cdot \pi \sqrt{\frac{0.915\,m}{3\cdot (9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} )} }$

$T = 1.108\,s$

4 0

3 years ago

) is it possible for one component of a vector to be zero, while the vector itself is not zero?

Natalka [10]

The least number of component of a vector quantity is two. These are the x-component and the y-component.

The resultant vector, or vector as we refer to it in this item, can be calculated through the equation,
RV = sqrt ((Vx)² + (Vy)²)

From the equation, it can be noted that if we let Vx equal to zero,
RV = Vy

Similarly, if we let Vy be equal to zero then,
RV = Vx

Thus, it is still possible for the vector to become nonzero even if one of its components is zero.

8 0

3 years ago

A bus travels east for 3 km, then north for 4 km. What is its final displacement?

ikadub [295]

5 km northeast. Left and up would make northeast

8 0

3 years ago

A single-turn current loop, carrying a current of 4.03 A, is in the shape of a right triangle with sides 68.1, 151, and 166 cm.

SashulF [63]

Answer:

Part a)

$F = 0$

Part b)

$F = 0.25 N$

Part c)

$F = 0.25 N$

Part d)

Net force on a closed loop in uniform magnetic field is always ZERO

$F_{net} = 0$

Explanation:

As we know that force on a current carrying wire is given as

$\vec F = i(\vec L \times \vec B)$

now we have

Part a)

current in side 166 cm and magnetic field is parallel

so we have

$F = i(\vec L \times \vec B)$

here we know that L and B is parallel to each other so

$F = 0$

Part b)

For 68.1 cm length wire we have

$F = iLB sin\theta$

here we know that

$cos\theta = \frac{68.1}{166}$

$\theta = 65.8$

so we have

$F = (4.03)(0.681)(99.3 \times 10^{-3})sin65.8$

$F = 0.25 N$

Part c)

For 151 cm length wire we have

$F = iLB sin\phi$

here we know that

$cos\phi = \frac{151}{166}$

$\theta = 24.5$

so we have

$F = (4.03)(1.51)(99.3 \times 10^{-3})sin24.5$

$F = 0.25 N$

Part d)

Net force on a closed loop in uniform magnetic field is always ZERO

$F_{net} = 0$

4 0

2 years ago

Help pls thx!!!!!!! <br> this is my last question i hope!

irakobra [83]

Answer:

Left

Explanation:

newtons is a measure of force. Since there is more newtons(force) pushing to the left, the object will move left. the 15 newtons cancel each other out, leaving only 5 newtons pushing to one side with no resistance.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers