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bekas [8.4K]
3 years ago
13

A loop antenna of area A = 3.04 cm^2 and resistance R = 6.66 μΩ is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 18.4 μ

T. The field magnitude drops to zero in 5.43 ms. How much thermal energy is produced in joules in the loop by the change in field?
Physics
1 answer:
blagie [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Thermal energy, H=8.57\times 10^{-10}\ J

Explanation:

It is given that,

Area of loop antenna, A=3.04\ cm^2=0.000304\ m^2

Resistance, R=6.66\ \mu \Omega=6.66\times 10^{-6}\ \Omega

Magnetic field, B=18.4\ \mu T=18.4\times 10^{-6}\ T

The field magnitude drops to zero in 5.43 ms, t=5.43\times 10^{-3}\ s

Due to change in magnetic field, an EMF will induced in the loop which is given by :

\epsilon=\dfrac{d(BA)}{dt}

Also, \epsilon=IR

IR=\dfrac{d(BA)}{dt}

I=\dfrac{d(BA)}{Rdt}

So, I=\dfrac{18.4\times 10^{-6}\times 0.000304}{6.66\times 10^{-6}\times 5.43\times 10^{-3}}

I = 0.154 A

Thermal energy produced is given by,

H=I^2Rt

H=(0.154)^2\times 6.66\times 10^{-6}\times 5.43\times 10^{-3}

H=8.57\times 10^{-10}\ J

So, the thermal energy produced by changing field is 8.57\times 10^{-10}\ J. Hence, this is the required solution.

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A block of mass m moving with a velocity v collides with a mass 2m at rest. Consider the collision is elastic, we have to find t
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

vf_{1} =\frac{1}{3} v:Final block velocity (toward the left)

vf_{2} =\frac{2}{3} v :Final mass velocity (to the right)

Explanation:

To solve this problem we apply the theory of shocks:

In an elastic shock the kinetic energy and the amount of linear movement or momentum are conserved.

Because the shock is elastic, the coefficient of elastic restitution (e) is equal to 1.

Principle of conservation of the momentum:

m1vi1+m2vi2=m1vf1+m2vf2 Equation 1

Formula to calculate the coefficient of elastic restitution (e):

e=\frac{vf_{2}-vf_{1}  }{vi_{1}-vi_{2}  } Equation 2

m1: Block mass

m2: mass of the  body that collides with the block

Vi1,vf1: initial, final velocity of the block

Vi2,vf2: initial, final velocity of the  body that collides with the block

Of the problem data we know that:

m1=m , m2 = 2m, vi1=v and vi2=0,  then, we replace this information in equation (1) :

mv+0=mvf1+2mvf2  we divide by m:

v=vf1+2vf2 Equation (3)

Because the shock is elastic, the coefficient of elastic restitution (e) is equal to 1,then , we we replace this information in equation (2)

1=\frac{vf_{2}-vf_{1}  }{v-0}  

v=vf2-vf1 Equation (4)

vf2=v+vf1 Equation (5)

We replace the equation 5 in the equation (3)

v=vf1+2(v+vf1)

v=vf1+2v+2vf1

-3vf1=v

vf_{1} = -\frac{1}{3} v

We replace Vf1=(-1/3)v in the equation (5):

vf_{2} =v-\frac{1}{3} v

vf_{2} =\frac{2}{3} v

Answer;

vf_{1} =\frac{1}{3} v:Final block velocity (toward the left)

vf_{2} =\frac{2}{3} v :Final mass velocity (to the right)

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Answer:

If one charged object is positive, and the other charged object is negative, then the two objects will attract each other. If both objects are positive, the objects will repeal each other. If both objects are negative, the objects will also repeal each other.

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A pressure cooker is a covered pot sealed everywhere except for a small circular opening in the top. A small weight placed over
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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Pressure is defined as the thrust acting per unit area. Its SI unit is Pascal.

Pressure = force / Area

Area, A = πr² = 3.14 x 0.491 x 10^-3 x 0.491 x 10^-3 = 7.57 x 10^-7 m^2

Pressure

P = \frac{0.763}{7.57 \times 10^{-7}}

P = 1 x 10^6 Pascal

Thus, the pressure inside the pot is 10^6 Pa.

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