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e-lub [12.9K]
4 years ago
13

A skater extends her arms, holding a 2 kg mass in each hand. She is rotating about a vertical axis at a given rate. She brings h

er arms inward toward her body in such a way that the distance of each mass from the axis changes from 1.00 to 0.50 m. Her rate of rotation (neglecting the mass of the skater) will the final angular velocity (in rev/s) be if her moment of inertia remains approximately constant at 5kg(m2), and the distance of the masses from the axis changes from 1 m to 0.1m?a. 6b. 3c. 9d. 4e. 7
Physics
1 answer:
Usimov [2.4K]4 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

It is known that relation between torque and angular acceleration is as follows.

                    \tau = I \times \alpha

and,       I = \sum mr^{2}

So,      I_{1} = 2 kg \times (1 m)^{2} + 2 kg \times (1 m)^{2}

                       = 4 kg m^{2}

      \tau_{1} = 4 kg m^{2} \times \alpha_{1}

     \tau_{2} = I_{2} \alpha_{2}

So,      I_{2} = 2 kg \times (0.5 m)^{2} + 2 kg \times (0.5 m)^{2}

                     = 1 kg m^{2}

 as \tau_{2} = I_{2} \alpha_{2}

                   = 1 kg m^{2} \times \alpha_{2}        

Hence,     \tau_{1} = \tau_{2}

                  4 \alpha_{1} = \alpha_{2}

            \alpha_{1} = \frac{1}{4} \alpha_{2}

Thus, we can conclude that the new rotation is \frac{1}{4} times that of the first rotation rate.

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5 0
3 years ago
A large, 68.0-kg cubical block of wood with uniform density is floating in a freshwater lake with 20.0% of its volume above the
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

a) V = 0.085 m^3

b) m = 17 kg

Explanation:

1) Data given

mb = 68 kg (mass for the block)

20% of the block volume is floating

100-20= 80% of the block volume is submerged

2) Notation

mb= mass of the block

Vw= volume submerged

mw = mass water displaced

V= total volume for the block

3) Forces involved (part a)

For this case we have two forces the buoyant force (B), defined as the weight of water displaced acting upward and the weight acting downward (W)

Since we have an equilibrium system we can set the forces equal. By definition the buoyant force is given by :

B = (mass water displaced) g = (mw) g   (1)

The definition of density is :

\rho_w = \frac{m_w}{V_w}

If we solve for mw we got m_w = \rho_w V_w  (2)

Replacing equation (2) into equation (1) we got:

B = \rho_w V_w g (3)

On this case Vw represent the volume of water displaced = 0.8 V

If we replace the values into equation (3) we have

0.8 ρ_w V g = mg  (4)

And solving for V we have

 V =  (mg)/(0.8 ρ_w g )

We cancel the g in the numerator and the denominator we got

V = (m)/(0.8 ρ_w)

V = 68kg /(0.8 x 1000 kg/m^3) = 0.085 m^3

4) Forces involved (part b)

For this case we have bricks above the block, and we want the maximum mass for the bricks without causing  it to sink below the water surface.

We can begin finding the weight of the water displaced when the block is just about to sink (W1)

W1 = ρ_w V g

W1 = 1000 kg/m^3 x 0.085 m^3 x 9.8 m/s^2 = 833 N

After this we can calculate the weight of water displaced before putting the bricks above (W2)

W2 = 0.8 x 833 N = 666.4 N

So the difference between W1 and W2 would represent the weight that can be added with the bricks (W3)

W3 = W1 -W2 = 833-666.4 N = 166.6 N

And finding the mass fro the definition of weight we have

m3 = (166.6 N)/(9.8 m/s^2) = 17 Kg

8 0
3 years ago
Jamal plugged his radio into the wall. The radio's plug had copper wires surrounded by rubber. The rubber protects Jamal from___
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The rubber protects him from being electrocuted by the flow of current going through the plug.
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3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A dumbbell-shaped object is composed by two equal masses, m, connected by a rod of negligible mass and length r. If I1 is the mo
Sati [7]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question will be Option A (I1 > I2).

Explanation:

Method for moment of inertia because of it's viewpoint including object at a mean distance "r" from the axis is,

⇒ mr²

<u>For Case 1:</u>

Let the length of a rod be "r".

The axis passes via the middle of that same rod so that the range from either the axis within each dumbbell becomes "\frac{r}{2}".

Now,

Now total moment of inertia = sum of inertial moment due to all of the dumbbell

⇒  l1=m(\frac{r}{2})^2+m(\frac{r}{2})^2

⇒  \frac{mr^2}{2}

<u>For Case 2:</u>

Axis moves via one dumbbell because its range from either the axis becomes zero (0) and its impact is zero only at inertia as well as other dumbbell seems to be at a range "r" from either the axis

Now,

Total moment of inertia = moment of inertia of dumbbell at distance "r".

l2=mr^2

And now we can infer from this one,

⇒ mr^2>\frac{mr^2}{2}

So that "I1 > I2" is the right answer.

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4 years ago
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