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KiRa [710]
3 years ago
6

What is the probability that a daughter of this mating will be a hemophiliac? Express your answer as a fraction using the slash

symbol and no spaces (for example, 1/24), or as a whole number.
Mathematics
1 answer:
schepotkina [342]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

zero  (0)

Step-by-step explanation:

probability of being hemophiliac and daughter is zero because females have 50% chance of being carrier.

where as males have 50% chance of being affected with hemophilia.

example for understanding: if after mating a girl have X chromosomes with hemophilia gene than she might have hemophilia but that is in rear case so probability is zero.

hope you understand my answer, thank you.

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oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

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using the net

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3 0
2 years ago
What is the simplified form of ? 8x4 8x8 32x4 32x8
Elena L [17]

Answer:

480

Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Math:
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

a) The equation must be rearranged into a form with one fundamental trigonometric function first:

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\sqrt{3} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{\sin x} \right) - 2 = 0

\sqrt{3} - 2\cdot \sin x = 0

\sin x = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}

x = \sin^{-1} \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}

Value of x is contained in the following sets of solutions:

x_{1} = \frac{\pi}{3}\pm 2\pi \cdot i, \forall i \in \mathbb{N}_{O}

x_{2} = \frac{5\pi}{6}\pm 2\pi\cdot i, \forall i \in \mathbb{N}_{O}

b) The equation must be simplified first:

\cos x + 1 = - \cos x

2\cdot \cos x = -1

\cos x = -\frac{1}{2}

x = \cos^{-1} \left(-\frac{1}{2} \right)

Value of x is contained in the following sets of solutions:

x_{1} = \frac{\pi}{3}\pm 2\pi \cdot i, \forall i \in \mathbb{N}_{O}

x_{2} = \frac{5\pi}{3}\pm 2\pi\cdot i, \forall i \in \mathbb{N}_{O}

7 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
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