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maksim [4K]
3 years ago
15

Radio waves are readily diffracted around buildings, whereas light waves are negligibly diffracted around buildings. This is bec

ause radio waves
Physics
1 answer:
Tom [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Radio waves have longer wavelength

Explanation:

Radio wave is an electromagnetic frequency that has the ability to travel through long distance. They have frequencies shuttling been the range of 10^4 hz and a frequency of 10^12 hz

Light wave is also called visible light. This is because it is visible to the naked eye, despite it being in the electromagnetic spectrum. It's frequency is usually between 4*10^-7 hz and a frequency of 7*10^-7 hz.

As can be seen from both, the radio waves length are quite far stronger than that of the light waves.

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Briefly explain why arterial injuries are more dangerous than damage to veins
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Injury to a vein increases the risk of forming a blood clot.

Explanation:

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The metal wire in an incandescent lightbulb glows when the lights is switch on and stops glowing when switched off. This simple
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When the metal wire in an incandescent lightbulb glows when the light is switched on and stops glowing when it is switched off, this is an example of resistance, which provides light and heat.  

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2 years ago
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What happens when electromagnetic waves cause a disturbance in electric
Leviafan [203]

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c

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7 0
2 years ago
.<br> Why are meteorites moving?
lisov135 [29]

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Glow

Explanation:

Actually, it is the air in front of the meteoroid that heats up. The particle is traveling at speeds between 20 and 30 kilometers per second. It compresses the air in front, causing the air to get hot. The air is so hot it begins to glow — creating a meteor - the streak of light observed from Earth.

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7 0
3 years ago
If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}

Similarly the momentum is given by m\times v

For 2 particles with masses m_{1},m_{2}and moving with velocities v_{1},v_{2} respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}

K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}

Similarly For 2 particles with masses m_{1},m_{2}and moving with velocities v_{1},v_{2} respectively the respective momenta are given by

p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}

p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0
3 years ago
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