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drek231 [11]
3 years ago
9

The forces acting on a sailboat are 390. N south and 180. N east. If the boat (including

Physics
1 answer:
velikii [3]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

180^2 + 390^2 = force ^2 (Pythagoras) root of force^2 = 429.5N approx resultant force Acceleration = Force/Mass 429.5/270 = 1.5907 ms^-2 in a Southwesterly direction.

Explanation:

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What is the time constant of a series circuit where the capacitor is 0.330μF and the resistor is 10Ω ?
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

\tau=3.3*10^{-6}s

Explanation:

Take at look to the picture I attached you, using Kirchhoff's current law we get:

C*\frac{dV}{dt}+\frac{V}{R}=0

This is a separable first order differential equation, let's solve it step by step:

Express the equation this way:

\frac{dV}{V}=-\frac{1}{RC}dt

integrate both sides, the left side will be integrated from an initial voltage v to a final voltage V, and the right side from an initial time 0 to a final time t:

\int\limits^V_v {\frac{dV}{V} } =-\int\limits^t_0 {\frac{1}{RC} } \, dt

Evaluating the integrals:

ln(\frac{V}{v})=e^{\frac{-t}{RC} }

natural logarithm to both sides in order to isolate V:

V(t)=ve^{-\frac{t}{RC} }

Where the term RC is called time constant and is given by:

\tau=R*C=10*(0.330*10^{-6})=3.3*10^{-6}s

3 0
3 years ago
When 1 kg of water and 1 kg of wood absorb the same amount of heat, the change in temperature of the wood is greater than the ch
vampirchik [111]

Your Answer Will Be C

8 0
3 years ago
3. According to Hund's rule, what's the expected magnetic behavior of vanadium (V)?
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

Diamagnetic

Explanation:

Hunds rule states that electrons occupy each orbital singly first before pairing takes place in degenerate orbitals. This implies that the most stable arrangement of electrons in an orbital is one in which there is the greatest number of parallel spins(unpaired electrons).

For vanadium V ion, there are 18 electrons which will be arranged as follows;

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6.

All the electrons present are spin paired hence the ion is expected to be diamagnetic.

6 0
3 years ago
According to a rule-of-thumb. every five seconds between a lightning flash and the following thunder gives the distance to the f
Bond [772]

Answer:

S_{s}=300 m/s

The rule for kilometers is that every three seconds between a lightning flash and the following thunder gives the distance to the flash in kilometers.

Explanation:

In order to use the rule of thumb to find the speed of sound in meters per second, we need to use some conversion ratios. We know there is 1 mile per every 5 seconds after the lightning is seen. We also know that there are 5280ft in 1 mile and we also know that there are 0.3048m in 1ft. This is enough information to solve this problem. We set our conversion ratios like this:

\frac{1mi}{5s}*\frac{5280ft}{1mi}*\frac{0.3048m}{1ft}=321.87m/s

notice how the ratios were written in such a way that the units got cancelled when calculating them. Notice that in one ratio the miles were on the numerator of the fraction while on the other they were on the denominator, which allows us to cancel them. The same happened with the feet.

The problem asks us to express the answer to one significant figure so the speed of sound rounds to 300m/s.

For the second part of the problem we need to use conversions again. This time we will write our ratios backwards and take into account that there are 1000m to 1 km, so we get:

\frac{5s}{1mi}*\frac{1mi}{5280ft}*\frac{1ft}{0.3048m}*\frac{1000m}{1km}=3.11s/km

This means that for every 3.11s there will be a distance of 1km from the place where the lightning stroke. Since this is a rule of thumb, we round to the nearest integer for the calculations to be made easily, so the rule goes like this:

The rule for kilometers is that every three seconds between a lightning flash and the following thunder gives the distance to the flash in kilometers.

3 0
3 years ago
A pendulum has a length of 2 m and a 30 kg mass hanging on the end. What is the period of the
anastassius [24]

Answer:

T = 2.83701481512 seconds

Explanation:

Hi!

The formula that you will want to use to solve this question is:

T = 2\pi *\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}  }

T--> period

L --> length of the pendulum

g --> acceleration due to gravity (9.8m/s^2)

since we know that the mass of the bob at the end of the pendulum does not affect the period of the pendulum, we can go ahead and ignore that bit of information (unless, of course, the weight causes the pendulum to stretch)

so now we can plug in our given info into the formula above and solve!

T = 2*pi * sqrt(2/9.8)

T = 2.83701481512 seconds

*Note*

- I used 3.14 to pi, if you need to use a different value for pi (a longer version, etc) your answer will be slightly different

I hope this helped!

7 0
3 years ago
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