Answer:
8F_i = 3F_f
Explanation:
When two identical spheres are touched to each other, they equally share the total charge. Therefore, When neutral C is first touch to A, they share the initial charge of A equally.
Let us denote that the initial charge of A and B are Q. Then after C is touched to A, their respective charges are Q/2.
Then, C is touched to B, and they share the total charge of Q + Q/2 = 3Q/2. Their respective charges afterwards is 3Q/4 each.
The electrostatic force, Fi, in the initial configuration can be calculated as follows.
![F_i = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_Aq_B}{r^2} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{Q^2}{r^2}[/tex}The electrostatic force, Ff, in the final configuration is [tex]F_f = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_Aq_B}{r^2} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{3Q^2/8}{r^2}[/tex}Therefore, the relation between Fi and Ff is as follows[tex]F_i = F_f\frac{3}{8}\\8F_i = 3F_f](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_i%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%7D%5Cfrac%7Bq_Aq_B%7D%7Br%5E2%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%7D%5Cfrac%7BQ%5E2%7D%7Br%5E2%7D%5B%2Ftex%7D%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3EThe%20electrostatic%20force%2C%20Ff%2C%20in%20the%20final%20configuration%20is%20%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DF_f%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%7D%5Cfrac%7Bq_Aq_B%7D%7Br%5E2%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%7D%5Cfrac%7B3Q%5E2%2F8%7D%7Br%5E2%7D%5B%2Ftex%7D%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3ETherefore%2C%20the%20relation%20between%20Fi%20and%20Ff%20is%20as%20follows%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DF_i%20%3D%20F_f%5Cfrac%7B3%7D%7B8%7D%5C%5C8F_i%20%3D%203F_f)
Answer:
Dynamic flexibility
Explanation:
Dynamic flexibility can be generally defined as the ability of the body muscles and joints to move in full range of motion. High flexibility in these joints and muscles leads to the decreasing pain and injury in different parts of the body.
Proper warm up exercises are needed to be carried out that involves both the combination of controlling movements and stretching of the body, and this directly enhances the dynamic flexibility of the body.
The athletes and sports persons possesses a good dynamic flexibility of their body as they carry our different types of body exercises.
Answer:
The Magnifying power of a telescope is 
Explanation:
Radius of curvature R = 5.9 m = 590 cm
focal length of objective 
= 
⇒ = 
⇒ = 295 cm
Focal length of eyepiece 
= 2.7 cm
Magnifying power of a telescope is given by,
therefore the Magnifying power of a telescope is
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.
We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.
Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed = ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .
Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed = 2ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/2ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.
So far so good. We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed. Perfect !
At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:
They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when
(a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)
AND
the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.
Wait ! Ignore all of that. I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too. It may be simpler than that. (I hope so.) Throw away
those last few paragraphs.
The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed. We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.
K (2π/ω seconds) = (K+1) (π/ω seconds)
2Kπ/ω = Kπ/ω + π/ω
Subtract Kπ/ω : Kπ/ω = π/ω
Multiply by ω/π : K = 1
(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)
And there we have it:
In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
It will be 2π/ω seconds before the planets line up again.
When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
in the drawing.
To describe it another way . . .
When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...
Bieber has made it halfway around.
Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...
Kanye is doing another complete revolution.
Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...
Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.
You're welcome. The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated. The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
Answer:
The maximum height the pebble reaches is approximately;
A. 6.4 m
Explanation:
The question is with regards to projectile motion of an object
The given parameters are;
The initial velocity of the pebble, u = 19 m/s
The angle the projectile path of the pebble makes with the horizontal, θ = 36°
The maximum height of a projectile, 
, is given by the following equation;
Therefore, substituting the known values for the pebble, we have;
Therefore, the maximum height of the pebble projectile, ≈ 6.4 m.
