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Kisachek [45]
3 years ago
13

What are the 2 reasons an alignment should be done?

Engineering
1 answer:
NikAS [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

because it will keep the tires in much better shape and it can improve the handling and keep your  car from pulling to one side

Explanation:

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Bore = 3"
Grace [21]
I need help my self lol XD
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For a fluid with a Prandtl Number of 1000.0, the hydrodynamic layer is thinner than the thermal boundary layers. a) True b) Fals
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

(b)False

Explanation:

Given:

 Prandtl number(Pr) =1000.

We know that   Pr=\dfrac{\nu }{\alpha }

  Where \nu is the molecular diffusivity of momentum

             \alpha is the molecular diffusivity of heat.

 Prandtl number(Pr) can also be defined as

    Pr=\left (\dfrac{\delta }{\delta _t}\right )^3

Where \delta is the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness and \delta_t is the thermal boundary layer thickness.

So if Pr>1 then hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness will be greater than thermal boundary layer thickness.

In given question Pr>1 so  hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness will be greater than thermal boundary layer thickness.

So hydrodynamic layer will be thicker than the thermal boundary layer.

8 0
3 years ago
A cylindrical specimen of steel has an original diameter of 12.8 mm. It is tested in tension its engineering fracture strength i
Mama L [17]

Answer:

a) The ductility = -30.12%

the negative sign means reduction

Therefore, there is 30.12% reduction

b) the true stress at fracture is 658.26 Mpa

Explanation:

Given that;

Original diameter d_{o} = 12.8 mm

Final diameter d_{f} = 10.7

Engineering stress  \alpha _{E} = 460 Mpa

a) determine The ductility in terms of percent reduction in area;

Ai = π/4(d_{o} )²  ; Ag = π/4(d_{f} )²

% = π/4 [ ( (d_{f} )² - (d_{o} )²) / ( π/4  (d_{o} )²) ]

= ( (d_{f} )² - (d_{o} )²) / (d_{o} )² × 100

we substitute

= [( (10.7)² - (12.8)²) / (12.8)² ] × 100

= [(114.49 - 163.84) / 163.84 ] × 100

= - 0.3012 × 100

= -30.12%

the negative sign means reduction

Therefore, there is 30.12% reduction

b) The true stress at fracture;

True stress  \alpha _{T} = \alpha _{E} ( 1 +  E_{E} )

E_{E}  is engineering strain

E_{E}  = dL / Lo

= (do² - df²) / df² = (12.8² - 10.7²) / 10.7² = (163.84 - 114.49) / 114.49

= 49.35 / 114.49  

E_{E} = 0.431

so we substitute the value of E_{E}  into our initial equation;

True stress  \alpha _{T} = 460 ( 1 +  0.431)

True stress  \alpha _{T} = 460 (1.431)

True stress  \alpha _{T} = 658.26 Mpa

Therefore, the true stress at fracture is 658.26 Mpa

6 0
2 years ago
How many hours should it take an articulated wheel loader equipped with a 4-yd^3 bucket to load 3000 yd^3 of gravel (average mat
densk [106]

Answer:

17 hours 15 minutes

Explanation:

See attached picture.

4 0
3 years ago
Write down at least two things that the mine winch
sveticcg [70]
I don’t know what the
4 0
3 years ago
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