Answer:
v₁f = 0.5714 m/s (→)
v₂f = 2.5714 m/s (→)
e = 1
It was a perfectly elastic collision.
Explanation:
m₁ = m
m₂ = 6m₁ = 6m
v₁i = 4 m/s
v₂i = 2 m/s
v₁f = ((m₁ – m₂) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₁i + ((2m₂) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₂i
v₁f = ((m – 6m) / (m + 6m)) * (4) + ((2*6m) / (m + 6m)) * (2)
v₁f = 0.5714 m/s (→)
v₂f = ((2m₁) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₁i + ((m₂ – m₁) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₂i
v₂f = ((2m) / (m + 6m)) * (4) + ((6m -m) / (m + 6m)) * (2)
v₂f = 2.5714 m/s (→)
e = - (v₁f - v₂f) / (v₁i - v₂i) ⇒ e = - (0.5714 - 2.5714) / (4 - 2) = 1
It was a perfectly elastic collision.
Answer:to revise or edit
anything that can be made in the non draft one
Explanation:
Answer:
The central blue square in between the lower pair of magnet has the least force of repulsion.
Explanation:
We can explain this using the dual nature of magnets.
Each magnet must have two poles namely:
-North pole
-South pole
We assume that the magnetic lines of forces enters from south pole and leaves from the north pole.
When brought together, like poles repel each other while opposite poles attract each other.
In the picture, the lower two magnets have opposite poles facing each other, hence the force of repulsion is minimum there and the force of attraction is maximum.
It is c, man it is positively c.
