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3 years ago

9

In doing a load of clothes, a clothes dryer uses 15 A of current at 240 V for 55 min. A personal computer, in contrast, uses 2.7

A of current at 120 V. With the energy used by the clothes dryer, how long (in hours) could you use this computer to "surf" the internet?

1 answer:

KatRina [158]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Available usage time for the computer = 10.185 hrs

Explanation:

for the dryer;

I = 15 A, V=240 V , t= 55min,

convert time from min to sec. t = 55*60 =3300 sec

Energy = IVt

Energy = 15*240*3300

Energy = 11,880,000 J

=11,800 KJ

using the energy for the clothes dryer to calculate for the time spent on the computer,

Energy = IVt

for the computer;

I = 2.7A V=120V , t=?

$t=\frac{energy}{IV}$

$t=\frac{11,800,000}{2.7*120}$

t=36,666.7sec

convert this value to hour by dividing by 3600

$t=\frac{36,666.7}{3600} \\t=10.185hrs$

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Explanation:

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What is the velocity of a wave with a frequency of 45 Hertz and a wavelength of 3 meters?

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A commuter train travels from New York to Washington, DC, and back in 6 hours and 5 minutes. The distance between the two statio

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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4 years ago

A particle has a charge of q = +4.9 μC and is located at the origin. As the drawing shows, an electric field of Ex = +242 N/C ex

irina1246 [14]

a)

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=0$

$F_{B_y}=0$

b)

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=0$

$F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+z axis)

c)

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+y axis)

$F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (-x axis)

Explanation:

a)

The electric force exerted on a charged particle is given by

$F=qE$

where

q is the charge

E is the electric field

For a positive charge, the direction of the force is the same as the electric field.

In this problem:

$q=+4.9\mu C=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C$ is the charge

$E_x=+242 N/C$ is the electric field, along the x-direction

So the electric force (along the x-direction) is:

$F_{E_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(242)=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$

towards positive x-direction.

The magnetic force instead is given by

$F=qvB sin \theta$

where

q is the charge

v is the velocity of the charge

B is the magnetic field

$\theta$ is the angle between the directions of v and B

Here the charge is stationary: this means $v=0$ , therefore the magnetic force due to each component of the magnetic field is zero.

b)

In this case, the particle is moving along the +x axis.

The magnitude of the electric force does not depend on the speed: therefore, the electric force on the particle here is the same as in part a,

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (towards positive x-direction)

Concerning the magnetic force, we have to analyze the two different fields:

- $B_x$ : this field is parallel to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, $\theta=0^{\circ}$ , so the force due to this field is zero.

$- B_y$ : this field is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, $\theta=90^{\circ}$ . Therefore, $\theta=90^{\circ}$ , so the force due to this field is:

$F_{B_y}=qvB_y$

where:

$q=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C$ is the charge

$v=345 m/s$ is the velocity

$B_y = +1.9 T$ is the magnetic field

Substituting,

$F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$

And the direction of this force can be found using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: direction of the velocity (+x axis)

- Middle finger: direction of the magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: direction of the force (+z axis)

c)

As in part b), the electric force has not change, since it does not depend on the veocity of the particle:

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+x axis)

For the field $B_x$ , the velocity (+z axis) is now perpendicular to the magnetic field (+x axis), so the force is

$F_{B_x}=qvB_x$

And by substituting,

$F_{B_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+x axis)

- Thumb: force (+y axis)

For the field $B_y$ , the velocity (+z axis) is also perpendicular to the magnetic field (+y axis), so the force is

$F_{B_y}=qvB_y$

And by substituting,

$F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: force (-y axis)

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3 years ago

Why is there so much variation in human skin coloration? a. This occurred because humans underwent natural selection, which resu

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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As the pigment in the skin of humans is affected by the content of melanin in the body that causes the determination of skins cells of the darker colored humans, and the light skin is determined by the bluish-white tissues under the dermis and the hemoglobin.

The emergence of skin pigments dates back to 1.2 billion years ago. When the harsh climatic conditions drove the early humans into arid and open landscapes. In general, the people living near to equator have darkly pigmented than those living in poles are lightly pigmented.

5 0

3 years ago