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Yanka [14]
3 years ago
12

Explain what a concentration gradient is and what it means for a molecule to diffuse down its

Physics
1 answer:
MArishka [77]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Diffusing the gradient ensures that most of the molecules in high concentration zone will wind up in the previously low concentration by the spontaneous movement of small molecules.

Explanation:

A gradient of concentration is the difference between in concentration of one place / area substance to different area. Having a molecule flow down its concentration gradient means moving the molecules from hypotonic areas to the concentration hypertonic areas

Diffusing the gradient ensures that most of the molecules in high concentration zone will wind up in the previously low concentration by the spontaneous movement of small molecules.

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Planet 1 orbits Star 1 and Planet 2 orbits Star 2 in circular orbits of the same radius. However, the orbital period of Planet 1
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The mass of Star 2 is Greater than the mass of Start 1. (This, if we suppose the masses of the planets are much smaller than the masses of the stars)

Explanation:

First of all, let's draw a free body diagram of a planet orbiting a star. (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can build an equation with the sum of forces between the start and the planet.

\sum F=ma

We know that the force between two bodies due to gravity is given by the following equation:

F_{g} = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{r^{2}}

in this case we will call:

M= mass of the star

m= mass of the planet

r = distance between the star and the planet

G= constant of gravitation.

so:

F_{g} =G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}

Also, if the planet describes a circular orbit, the centripetal force is given by the following equation:

F_{c}=ma_{c}

where the centripetal acceleration is given by:

a_{c}=\omega ^{2}r

where

\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}

Where T is the period, and \omega is the angular speed of the planet, so:

a_{c} = ( \frac{2\pi}{T})^{2}r

or:

a_{c}=\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}}

so:

F_{c}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

so now we can do the sum of forces:

\sum F=ma

F_{g}=ma_{c}

G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

in this case we can get rid of the mass of the planet, so we get:

G\frac{M}{r^{2}}=(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

we can now solve this for T^{2} so we get:

T^{2} = \frac{4\pi ^{2}r^{3}}{GM}

We could take the square root to both sides of the equation but that would not be necessary. Now, the problem tells us that the period of planet 1 is longer than the period of planet 2, so we can build the following inequality:

T_{1}^{2}>T_{2}^{2}

So let's see what's going on there, we'll call:

M_{1}= mass of Star 1

M_{2}= mass of Star 2

So:

\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{1}}>\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{2}}

we can get rid of all the constants so we end up with:

\frac{1}{M_{1}}>\frac{1}{M_{2}}

and let's flip the inequality, so we get:

M_{2}>M_{1}

This means that for the period of planet 1 to be longer than the period of planet 2, we need the mass of star 2 to be greater than the mass of star 1. This makes sense because the greater the mass of the star is, the greater the force it applies on the planet is. The greater the force, the faster the planet should go so it stays in orbit. The faster the planet moves, the smaller the period is. In this case, planet 2 is moving faster, therefore it's period is shorter.

6 0
3 years ago
What is the principal of moment​
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

hope it helps...

Explanation:

The Principle of Moments states that when a body is balanced, the total clockwise moment about a point equals the total anticlockwise moment about the same point.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
S the Sun. Points Wand
klasskru [66]

Answer:

the answer is points wand sun.

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Because cosmic distances are so vast, astronomers use light-years as their unit of distance. One light-year is defined as ______
8090 [49]

Answer:

Because cosmic disaster are so vast, astronomers use light-years as their unit of distance. One light-year is defined as <u>the distance a beam of light travels in one year</u>. The nearest star is a little more than <u>4.37 light-years</u> away from us. When we see light from a galaxy 2 million light-years away, it has taken<u> 2 million Earth years</u> to reach us. Light from the Sun takes <u>approximately 8.4269 minutes</u> to reach us

Explanation:

i) One light-year is defined as the distance a light beam travels in a time of one Earth year. One light year is equivalent to 6 × 10¹² miles or 9.7 × 10¹² km

ii) The distance to the nearest star =  4.37 light-years

iii) When a star located in a galaxy that is 2.3 million light years away is seen, it has taken 2.3 million light years to reach us

iv) The distance of the Sun to the Earth = 151.58 million kilometers

The speed of light, c = 299792.458 km/s

The time it will take light to reach us from the Sun, 't', is given as follows;

t = 151.58 × 10⁶ km/(299792.458 km/s) ≈ 8.4269 minutes.

7 0
3 years ago
A flat screen tv uses 120 watts. How much energy is used up if it is left on for 15 min?
xeze [42]

Answer:

d

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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