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FrozenT [24]
3 years ago
9

A top is a toy that is made to spin on its pointed end by pulling on a string wrapped around the body of the top. The string has

a length of 51 cm and is wrapped around the top at a place where its radius is 1.8 cm. The thickness of the string is negligible. The top is initially at rest. Someone pulls the free end of the string, thereby unwinding it and giving the top an angular acceleration of 10 rad/s2. What is the final angular velocity of the top when the string is completely unwound
Physics
1 answer:
AlladinOne [14]3 years ago
3 0

Given Information:

Angular displacement = θ = 51 cm = 0.51  m

Radius = 1.8 cm = 0.018 m

Initial angular velocity = ω₁ = 0 m/s

Angular acceleration = α = 10 rad/s ²

Required Information:

Final angular velocity = ω₂ = ?

Answer:

Final angular velocity = ω₂ = 21.6 rad/s

Explanation:

We know from the equations of kinematics,

ω₂² = ω₁² + 2αθ

Where ω₁ is the initial angular velocity that is zero since the toy was initially at rest, α is angular acceleration and θ is angular displacement.

ω₂² = (0)² + 2αθ

ω₂² = 2αθ

ω₂ = √(2αθ)

We know that the relation between angular displacement and arc length is given by

s = rθ

θ = s/r

θ = 0.51/0.018

θ = 23.33 radians

finally, final angular velocity is

ω₂ = √(2αθ)

ω₂ = √(2*10*23.33)

ω₂ = 21.6 rad/s

Therefore, the top will be rotating at 21.6 rad/s when the string is completely unwound.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

<h3>Obtaining the formula</h3>

We wish to find a formula that

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We can cover all this requisites with a straight-line equation. (an straigh-line its the only curve that has a constant rate of change) :

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So, we can use this formula with the data from our problem. For the first condition:

f ( 0 \ years ) = m \ (0 \ years) + b = \$ \ 2816

b = \$ \ 2816

So, b = $ 2816.

Now, for the second condition:

f ( 8 \ years ) = m \ (8 \ years) + \$ \ 2816 = \$ \ 0

m \ (8 \ years) = \ - \$ \ 2816

m = \frac{\ - \$ \ 2816}{8 \ years}

m = \frac{\ - \$ \ 2816}{8 \ years}

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f(t) \ = \ - \ 352 \ \frac{\$ }{years} \ t \ + \ \$ \ 2816

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Now, we just use <em>t = 5 years</em> in our formula

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Explanation:

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In the given question, the direction of flow of current through the wires is opposite, thus both wires applies the same field on each other. The result to repulsion between them.

The magnetic field (B) between the given wires can be determined by:

B = \frac{U_{o}I }{2\pi r}

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