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2 years ago

A truck traveling with an initial velocity of 22m/s comes to a stop in 17.32 secs. What is the acceleration of the truck?

Physics

2 answers:

Tomtit [17]2 years ago

6 0

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 22 m/s

v = 0 m/s

t = 17.32 s

Find: a

v = at + v₀

(0 m/s) = a (17.32 s) + (22 m/s)

a = -1.270 m/s²

Round as needed.

trasher [3.6K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

A truck traveling with an initial velocity of 22 m/s comes to a stop in 17.32 sec, the acceleration of the truck is $- 1.27 m/s^2$

Explanation

From the Given statements, we know that Initial Velocity (u) = 22 m/s

time (t) = 17.32 seconds

Final Velocity (v) = 0 m/s [ because the truck Stops]

find acceleration on Applying the Equation of Motion

v = u + at

substituting the values in above equation, we find

a = $\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{t}}$

= $\frac{0-22}{17.32} \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^{2}$

a = $- 1.27 m/s^2$ [negative sign shows reverse direction]

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Discuss the phase change condition due to reflection of light from a surface. Summarize equations of interference for thin film.

Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

if this surface has a higher index than in the medium where the light travels, the reflected wave has a phase change of 180º

Explanation:

When a ray of light falls on a surface if this surface has a higher index than in the medium where the light travels, the reflected wave has a phase change of 180º this can be explained by Newton's third law, the light when arriving pushes the atoms of the medium that is more dense, and these atoms respond with a force of equal magnitude, but in the opposite direction.

When the fractional index is lower than that of the medium where the reflacted beam travels, notice a change in phase.

Also, when light penetrates the medium, it modifies its wavelength

λ = λ₀ / n

We take these two aspects into account, the condition for contributory interference is

d sin θ = (m + 1/2) λ

for destructive interference we have

d sin θ = m λ

in general this phenomenon is observed at 90º

2 d = (m +1/2) λ° / n

2nd = (m + ½) λ₀

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3 years ago

Consider two thin, coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b푏 (a

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

electric potential, V = -q(a²- b²)/8π∈₀r³

Explanation:

Question (in proper order)

Consider two thin coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b (b < a) and charges q and -q, respectively. Determine the potential at large distances from the rings

consider the attached diagram below

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the outer charged ring with radius a is as given below

Va = q/4π∈₀ [1/(a² + b²)¹/²]

$Va = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Also

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the inner charged ring with radius b is

$Vb = \frac{-q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Sum of the potential at point p is

V = Va + Vb

that is

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } + \frac{-q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }]$

the expression below can be written as the equivalent

$\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + a^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

likewise,

$\frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + b^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

hence,

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

1/r is common to both equation

hence, we have it out and joined to the 4π∈₀ denominator that is outside

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

by reciprocal rule

1/a² = a⁻²

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} - {(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2}]$

by binomial expansion of fractional powers

where $(1+a)^{n} =1+na+\frac{n(n-1)a^{2} }{2!}+ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)a^{3}}{3!}+...$

if we expand the expression we have the equivalent as shown

${(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

also,

${(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

the above equation becomes

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [((1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } ) - (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } - 1+\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } +\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]\\\\V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } -\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * \frac{1}{2r^{2} } *(b^{2} -a^{2} )$

$V = \frac{q}{8\pi e0 r^{3} } * (b^{2} -a^{2} )$

Answer

$V = \frac{q (b^{2} -a^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

$V = \frac{-q (a^{2} -b^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

8 0

3 years ago

Ahmad is riding his bicycle. He finds that he can accelerate from rest at 0.44 m/s^2 for 5 s to reach a speed of 2.2 m/s. The to

snow_lady [41]

Answer:

1) The force Christian can exert on his bicycle before picking up the the cargo is 529.74 N

2) The force Christian can exert on his bicycle after picking up the the cargo is 647.46 N

Therefore, Christian has to exert more force on his bike after picking up the cargo

Explanation:

The given parameters are;

The mass of Christian and his bicycle = 54 kg

The mass of the cargo = 12 kg

1) The force Christian can exert on his bicycle before picking up the the cargo = Mass of Christian and his bicycle × Acceleration due to gravity

∴ The force Christian can exert on his bicycle before picking up the the cargo = 54 kg × 9.81 m/s² = 529.74 N

2) The force Christian can exert on his bicycle after picking up the the cargo = (54 + 12) kg × 9.81 m/s² = 647.46 N

Therefore, Christian has to exert more force on his bike after picking up the cargo.

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2 years ago

In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 11.8 cm^2 is rotated during the time interval 4.9

Zanzabum

Answer:

Explanation:

Flux through the coil = nBA , n is no of turns , B is magnetic flux and A a is area of the coli

= 200 x 5.6 x 10⁻⁵ x 11.8 x 10⁻⁴

= 13216 x 10⁻⁹ weber .

b ) When the coil becomes parallel to magnetic field , flux through it will become zero.

c ) e m f induced = change in flux / time

= 13216 x 10⁻⁹ / 4.9 x 10⁻²

= 2697.14 x 10⁻⁷ V

= 269.7 x10⁻⁶

269.7 μV.

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3 years ago

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Ivahew [28]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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