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3 years ago

Which electromagnetic wave type has the largest wavelength?

Physics

1 answer:

nadya68 [22]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Nearly all frequencies and wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation can be used for spectroscopy. Radio waves, infrared rays, visible light, ultraviolet rays, X-rays, and gamma rays are all types of electromagnetic radiation. Radio waves have the longest wavelength, and gamma rays have the shortest wavelength.

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A ramp is 1.0 m high and 3.0 m long. What is the IMA of the ramp?

oksano4ka [1.4K]

To calculate the ideal mechanical advantage for an inclined plane, divide th length of the incline by the height of the incline.
Therefore; IMA = L/h
L= 3.0 m, while h =1.0 m
IMA = 3/1
= 3
Therefore the IMA of the ramp is 3
This means the ramp increases the force that is being exerted by 3 times.

4 0

3 years ago

A brick is resting on a smooth wooden board that is at a 30° angle. What is one way to overcome the static friction that is hold

lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

to overcome the out of friction we must increase the angle of the plane

Explanation:

To answer this exercise, let's propose the solution of the problem, write Newton's second law. We define a coordinate system where the x axis is parallel to the plane and the other axis is perpendicular to the plane.

X axis

fr - Wₓ = m a (1)

Y axis

N- $W_{y}$ = 0

N = W_{y}

let's use trigonometry to find the components of the weight

sin θ = Wₓ / W

cos θ = W_{y} / W

Wₓ = W sin θ

W_{y} = W cos θ

the friction force has the formula

fr = μ N

fr = μ Wy

fr = μ mg cos θ

from equation 1

at the point where the force equals the maximum friction force

in this case the block is still still so a = 0

F = fr

F = (μ mg) cos θ

We can see that the quantities in parentheses with constants, so as the angle increases, the applied force must be less.

This is the force that balances the friction force, any force slightly greater than F initiates the movement.

Consequently, to overcome the out of friction we must increase the angle of the plane

the correct answer is to increase the angle of the plane

4 0

3 years ago

Indicate the result of each of the following unit vector cross products (unit vector hat-symbols not shown): . kxi = . jxi= -jxk

notka56 [123]

Answer:

Explanation:

The cross product of two vectors is given by

$\overrightarrow{A}\times \overrightarrow{B}=\left | \overrightarrow{A} \right |\left | \overrightarrow{B} \right |Sin\theta \widehat{n}$

Where, θ be the angle between the two vectors and \widehat{n} be the unit vector along the direction of cross product of two vectors.

Here, K x i = - j

As K is the unit vector along Z axis, i is the unit vector along X axis and j be the unit vector along axis.

The direction of cross product of two vectors is given by the right hand palm rule.

So, k x i = j

j x i = - k

- j x k = - i

i x i = 0

4 0

3 years ago

6. An aircraft is is travelling along a runway at a Velocity of 25m/s in It accelerates at a rate of 4m/s² for a distance of 750

zysi [14]

Answer:

Take-off velocity = v = 81.39[m/s]

Explanation:

We can calculate the takeoff speed easily, using the following kinematic equation.

$v_{f}^{2}=v_{i}^{2} +2*a*x$

where:

a = acceleration = 4[m/s^2]

x = distance = 750[m]

vi = initial velocity = 25 [m/s]

vf = final velocity

$v_{f}=\sqrt{(25)^{2}+(2*4*750) } \\v_{f}=81.39[m/s]$

7 0

2 years ago

Charge g is distributed in a spherically symmetric ball of radius a. (a) Evaluate the average volume charge density p. (b) Now a

nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

Explanation:

The volume of a sphere is:

V = 4/3 * π * a^3

The volume charge density would then be:

p = Q/V

p = 3*Q/(4 * π * a^3)

If the charge density depends on the radius:

p = f(r) = k * r

I integrate the charge density in spherical coordinates. The charge density integrated in the whole volume is equal to total charge.

$Q = \int\limits^{2*\pi}_0\int\limits^\pi_0 \int\limits^r_0 {k * r} \, dr * r*d\theta* r*d\phi$

$Q = k *\int\limits^{2*\pi}_0\int\limits^\pi_0 \int\limits^r_0 {r^3} \, dr * d\theta* d\phi$

$Q = k *\int\limits^{2*\pi}_0\int\limits^\pi_0 {\frac{r^4}{4}} \, d\theta* d\phi$

$Q = k *\int\limits^{2*\pi}_0 {\frac{\pi r^4}{4}} \, d\phi$

$Q = \frac{\pi^2 r^4}{2}}$

Since p = k*r

Q = p*π^2*r^3 / 2

Then:

p(r) = 2*Q / (π^2*r^3)

3 0

2 years ago