Correct me if I'm wrong, anyone who is more informed on this than I am, but wouldn't it be because of the magnetic fields and whatnot? The longer I think on it, the more I feel like I'm wrong, so don't take my word for it 100%
Answer:
0.032 L or 32 mL
Explanation:
Use the dilution equation M1V1 = M2V2
M1 = 9.0 M
V1 = This is what we're looking for.
M2 = 0.145 M
V2 = 2 L
Solve for V1 --> V1 = M2V2/M1
V1 = (0.145 M)(2 L) / (9.0 M) = 0.032 L
Answer:
I just did it home slice the first one's Ag+ and Zn2+ and the second one is A
Explanation:
I just did the assignment
Mechanical energy=
Kinetic energy + potential energy
Hope this helped!
To plot the calibration curve, you need to prepare iron solutions with known concentrations and measure their absorbance. You need to pipet 0 mL of the diluted solution to have 0.00 mg of iron.
In spectrophotometry, to plot the calibration curve, you need to prepare solutions with known concentrations and measure their absorbance.
We have a standard iron solution with a concentration of 0.2500g/L of pure iron (C₁). We pipet 25.00mL (V₁) of this standard iron solution into a 500mL (V₂) volumetric flask and dilute up to the mark with distilled water.
We can calculate the concentration of the diluted solution (C₂) using the dilution rule.

Then, if we wanted to prepare the blank, that is, the solution that contains the same matrix but not the analyte, and whose concentration in iron is 0.00 mg/L, we wouldn't pipet any of the diluted solution.
To plot the calibration curve, you need to prepare iron solutions with known concentrations and measure their absorbance. You need to pipet 0 mL of the diluted solution to have 0.00 mg of iron.
Learn more: brainly.com/question/24195565