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uranmaximum [27]
3 years ago
7

Is energy matter? Is gravity matter? Why or why not

Physics
1 answer:
Alja [10]3 years ago
5 0

No, because the energy is the capacity for performing work. Gravity is the force that draws everything to the earth's center.

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Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
2 years ago
10. A loud motorcycle passes by the front of Bill's house. What medium
garik1379 [7]

Answer: Air

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
2. What is one way that science helps shape society?
zhuklara [117]

Answer:Science is valued by society because the application of scientific knowledge helps to satisfy many basic human needs and improve living standards. Finding a cure for cancer and a clean form of energy are just two topical examples.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Explain what happens during stages A and B.
fgiga [73]
Is there a picture?
3 0
2 years ago
calculate how much charge passes through the LED in 1 hour if the current flowing in the circuit below is 350mA
Morgarella [4.7K]

Given the the current flowing in the circuit and the elapsed time, the charge that passes through the LED is 1260 Coulombs.

<h3>What is Current?</h3>

Current is simply the rate of flow of charged particles i.e electrons caused by EMF or voltage.

If a charge passes through the cross-section of a conductor in a given time, the current I is expressed as;

I = Q/t

Where Q is the charge and t is time elapsed.

Given the data in the question;

  • Time elapsed t = 1hr = 3600s
  • Current I = 350mA = 0.35A
  • Charge Q = ?

We substitute our given values into the expression above to determine the charge.

I = Q/t

Q = I × t

Q = 0.35A × 3600s

Q = 1260C

Therefore,  given the the current flowing in the circuit and the elapsed time, the charge that passes through the LED is 1260 Coulombs.

Learn more about current here: brainly.com/question/3192435

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
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