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nordsb [41]
3 years ago
7

What word can be used to describe the compression of a longitudal wave

Physics
1 answer:
NemiM [27]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Mechanical longitudinal waves are also called compressional or compression waves, because they produce compression and rarefaction when traveling through a medium, and pressure waves, because they produce increases and decreases in pressure.

Explanation:

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Can anyone please explain this point with an example. I have presentation tomorrow.
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Explanation:

Efficiency is a way of describing the amount of useful ​output​ a process or machine can generate as a percentage of the ​input​ required to make it go. In other words, it compares how much energy is used to do work versus how much is lost or wasted to the environment. The more efficient the machine, the less energy wasted.

For example, if a heat engine is able to turn 75 percent of the fuel it receives into motion, while 25 percent is lost as heat in the process, it would be 75 percent efficient. Out of the original 100 percent of the fuel, 75 percent was output as useful work.  

the equation:

energy efficiency =useful output energy/total input energy

8 0
2 years ago
How would a scientist describe a flying Hamster?
Roman55 [17]
They will say hamsters are related to birds lol
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What are different ways the soil is important to the water cycle?
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

The soil plays an important part in the storage and distribution of the water that reaches it. The role the soil plays in the hydrological cycle is crucial for the maintenance of the biosphere, because it is provides water for plants, animals and humans.

7 0
2 years ago
Four identical balls are thrown from the top of a cliff, each with the same speed. The
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

the speed and the kinetic energy of the first and fourth ball are equal, while the speed and kinetic energy of the second and third balls are equal

Explanation:

The kinetic energy, K.E. = (1/2) × m × v²

The velocity of the ball, v = u × sin(θ)

Where;

u = The initial velocity of the ball

θ = The reference angle

1) For the ball thrown straight up, we have;

θ = 90°

∴ v = u

The final velocity of the ball as it strikes the ground is v₂ = u² + 2gh

Where;

h = The height of the cliff

∴ K.E. = (1/2) × m × (u² + 2gh)²

2) For the second ball thrown 30° to the horizontal, we have;

K.E. = (1/2) × m × ((u×sin30)² + 2·g·h)² = K.E. = (1/2) × m × ((0.5·u)² + 2·g·h)²

3) For the third ball thrown at 30° below the horizontal, we have;

K.E. = (1/2) × m × ((u×sin30)² + 2·g·h)² = K.E. = (1/2) × m × ((0.5·u)² + 2·g·h)²

4)  For the fourth ball thrown straight down, we have;

K.E. = (1/2) × m × (u² + 2gh)²

Therefore, as the ball strike the ground, the speed and the kinetic energy of the first and fourth ball are equal, while the speed and kinetic energy of the second and third balls are equal

Learn more about object kinetic energy of object if free fall here;

brainly.com/question/14872097

6 0
3 years ago
Water enters a student's house 10.0 m above the ground through a pipe with a cross section area of 1.00 x 10-4m2 at ground. Insi
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

(a). V₁ = 10m/s (velocity inside the house), V₂ = 5m/s (velocity at ground level)

(b). P₂ = 236500 Pa

Explanation:

This is quite straight-forward so let us begin by defining the terms given.

Given that;

The cross-section area inside the student's house A₁ = 0.50 0.50 x 10-4m2.

Let us make the velocity of water inside the house be V₁

such that the Volume of water entering the per second is = A₁V₁

Therefore, in 90sec:

45 L =  90 A₁V₁

V₁ = 45 * 10⁻³m³ / 90*0.5*10⁻⁴

V₁ = 10m/s            (velocity of water inside the house)

From the continuity equation we have that;

A₁V₁ = A₂V₂

0.5*10⁻⁴ * 10 = 1*10⁻⁴ V₂

V₂ = 5m/s               (velocity at ground level)

(b). We are told to calculate the water pressure in the pipeline at the ground level.

Using Bernoulli's equation;

P₁ + pgh₁ + 1/2PV₁²  (inside)      =       P₂ + pgh₂ + 1/2PV₂²   (ground level)

1.01*10⁵ + 1000*9.8*10 + 1/2*1000*(10)² = P₂ + 0 + 1/2*1000*(5)²

P₂ (pressure) = 1.01*10⁵Pa

Therefore we have;

101000 + 98000 + 50000 = P₂ + 12500

P₂ = 236500 Pa

cheers I hope this helped !!

3 0
2 years ago
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