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VikaD [51]
3 years ago
14

Sometimes at a child's birthday party someone will rub a balloon on another's head and stick the balloon to the wall. this works

because
a.the wall and balloon have the same charge.
b.the balloon has less weight because it has become charged.
c.the balloon discharges current into the wall and the wall becomes charged just like the balloon was.
d.the wall and the balloon have opposite charges and this creates an attractive force between the wall and the balloon.
Physics
2 answers:
kogti [31]3 years ago
8 0
D). I hope this helped. :-)
OverLord2011 [107]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D

Explanation:

I took the test :P

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Given that the collision is elastic and glider 2 is initially at rest (v2,i =0), please use below Eqs. to explain why
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

Explanation:

1 )

Put v2,i =0, in second equation

v2,f= (m2-m1)v2,i + 2m1v1,i/m1+m2

v2,f = 0 + 2m1v1,i/m1+m2

v2,f =  2m1v1,i/m1+m2

In this equation coefficient of v1,i is positive so v2,f and v1,i have the same sign.

2 )

Put m1 < m2  and v2,i =0 in first equation

v1,f= (m1-m2)v1,i + 2m2v2,1/m1+m2

v1,f= (m1-m2)v1,i

As m1-m2 is negative , v1f and v1i will have opposite sign.

3 )

Put m1 > m2  and v2,i =0 in first equation

v1,f= (m1-m2)v1,i + 2m2v2,1/m1+m2

v1,f= (m1-m2)v1,i

m1 - m2 is positive so v1f and v1i will have same  sign.

4 )

Put m1 = m2 and v2,i =0 in first equation

v1,f= (m1-m2)v1,i

= 0 because m1 = m2

So glider 1 will stop because v1,f = 0 .

 

 

5 0
2 years ago
NEED ANSWER ASAP!!!!!!
olga55 [171]

Answer:

yes. why do you need this answered asap? lol

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
All simple machines are types of
taurus [48]

Answer: Metal. There are six of them.  inclined plane, the wedge, the screw, the lever, the wheel and axle, and the pulley.

Hope this helps!

~Jarvis

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Two forces, F? 1 and F? 2, act at a point, as shown in the picture. (Figure 1) F? 1 has a magnitude of 9.20 N and is directed at
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

a. Fx = -8.089 N b. Fy = 3.525 N c. 8.824 N d. 336.45°

Explanation:

Since F₁ = 9.2 N and acts at 57° above the negative axis in the second quadrant, its x-component is -F₁cos57° and its y- component is F₁sin57°

Since F₁ = 5.2 N and acts at 53.7° below the negative axis in the third quadrant, its x-component is -F₂cos53.7° and its y- component is -F₂sin53.7°

Part A

What is the x component Fx of the resultant force?

The x component of the resultant force Fx = -F₁cos57° + -F₂cos53.7° = -9.2cos57° + (-5.2cos53.7°) = (-5.011 - 3.078) N = -8.089 N

Part B

What is the y component Fy of the resultant force?

The y component Fy of the resultant force = F₁sin57° + -(F₂sin53.7°) = 9.2sin57° - 5.2sin53.7° = (7.716 - 4.191) N = 3.525 N

Part C  

What is the magnitude F of the resultant force?

The magnitude F of the resultant force = √(Fx² + Fy²)

F = √(-8.089² N + 3.525² N) = √65.432 + 12.426 = √77.858 = 8.824 N

Part D

What is the angle ? that the resultant force forms with the negative x axis?

The angle the resultant force makes with the negative x axis is given by

θ = tan⁻¹(Fy/Fx) = tan⁻¹(3.525/-8.089) = tan⁻¹-0.4358 = -23.55°.

To measure it from the negative x axis, we add 360. So, our angle = 360 -23.55 = 336.45°

7 0
3 years ago
a hammer of mass 5 kg travelling at 4 metre per second is a nail directly and does not rebound what is the impulse of the hammer
dmitriy555 [2]
20 kg.m/s
p =m*v = 5*4 = 20
5 0
3 years ago
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