No answer is possible until we know the number that belongs after the words "... angular speed of ".
A) We differentiate the expression for velocity to obtain an expression for acceleration:
v(t) = 1 - sin(2πt)
dv/dt = -2πcos(2πt)
a = -2πcos(2πt)
b) Any value of t can be plugged in as long as it is greater than or equal to 0.
c) we integrate the expression of velocity to find an expression for displacement:
∫v(t) dt = ∫ 1 - sin(2πt) dt
x(t) = t + cos(2πt)/2π + c
x(0) = 0
0 = = + cos(0)/2π + c
c = -1/2π
x(t) = t + cos(2πt)/2π -1/2π
Explanation:
Since, it is given that the magnet drops and falls lengthwise towards the canter of the ring. As a result, change in magnetic flux will occur which tends to induce an electric current in the ring.
Therefore, a magnetic field is also produced by the ring itself which will actually oppose or repel the magnet.
Thus, we can conclude that the falling magnet be repelled by the ring due to the magnetic interaction of the magnet and the ring.
Vaporization of a sample of liquid is a phase transition from the liquid phase to the gas phase.
Answer: An object at rest has zero velocity - and (in the absence of an unbalanced force) will remain with a zero velocity. Such an object will not change its state of motion.
Explanation: I hoped that helped!!
