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kondor19780726 [428]
3 years ago
12

Light-rail passenger trains that provide transportation within and between cities are capable of modest accelerations. The magni

tude of the maximum acceleration is typically 1.3 m/s2 , but the driver will usually maintain a constant acceleration that is less than the maximum. A train travels through a congested part of town at 4.0m/s . Once free of this area, it speeds up to 13m/s in 8.0 s . At the edge of town, the driver again accelerates, with the same acceleration, for another 16 s to reach a higher cruising speed.
What is the final speed?
Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.
Physics
1 answer:
Mkey [24]3 years ago
3 0
During the first phase of acceleration we have:
v o = 4 m/s;  t = 8 s; v = 13 m/s, a = ?
v = v o + a * t
13 m/s = 4 m / s + a * 8 s
a * 8 s = 9 m/s
a = 9 m/s : 8 s
a = 1.125 m/s²
The final speed:
v = ?;  v o = 13 m/s; a = 1.125 m/s² ;  t = 16 s
v = v o + a * t
v = 13 m/s + 1.125 m/s² * 16 s
v = 13 m/s + 18 m/s = 31 m/s 
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Water flows through a cast steel pipe (k = 50 W m.K, ε = 0.8) with an outer diameter of 104mm and 2 mm wall thickness. Calculate
masha68 [24]

Answer:

The heat loss per unit length is   \frac{Q}{L}   = 2981 W/m

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The outer diameter of the pipe is d = 104mm = \frac{104}{1000} = 0.104 m

     The thickness is  D = 2mm = \frac{2}{1000} = 0.002m  

      The temperature  of water is  T = 90^oC = 90 + 273 = 363K  

      The outside air temperature is T_a = -10^oC = -10 +273 = 263K

        The water side heat transfer coefficient is z_1 = 300 W/ m^2 \cdot K

       The  heat transfer coefficient is  z_2 = 20 W/m^2 \cdot K

The heat lost per unit length is mathematically represented as

           \frac{Q}{L}   = \frac{2 \pi (T - Ta)}{ \frac{ln [\frac{d}{D} ]}{z_1}  +  \frac{ln [\frac{d}{D} ]}{z_2}}

Substituting values

         \frac{Q}{L}   = \frac{2 * 3.142 (363 - 263)}{ \frac{ln [\frac{0.104}{0.002} ]}{300}  +  \frac{ln [\frac{0.104}{0.002} ]}{20}}

           \frac{Q}{L}   = \frac{628}{0.2107}

           \frac{Q}{L}   = 2981 W/m

6 0
3 years ago
Which is likely to be more common in our Galaxy: white dwarfs or black holes? Why?
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

White dwarfs are likely to be much more common. The number of stars decreases with increasing mass, and only the most massive stars are likely to complete their lives as black holes. There are many more stars of the masses appropriate for evolution to a white dwarf.

4 0
3 years ago
A ball is released from a tower at a height of 100 meters toward the roof of another tower that is 25 meters high. The horizonta
ahrayia [7]
The answer is 5.11 meters/second
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel is subjected to an internal gauge pressure, p=75 psip=75 psi. It had a wall thickness
Mekhanik [1.2K]

To solve this problem we must apply the concept related to the longitudinal effort and the effort of the hoop. The effort of the hoop is given as

\sigma_h = \frac{Pd}{2t}

Here,

P = Pressure

d = Diameter

t = Thickness

At the same time the longitudinal stress is given as,

\sigma_l = \frac{Pd}{4t}

The letters have the same meaning as before.

Then he hoop stress would be,

\sigma_h = \frac{Pd}{2t}

\sigma_h = \frac{75 \times 8}{2\times 0.25}

\sigma_h = 1200psi

And the longitudinal stress would be

\sigma_l = \frac{Pd}{4t}

\sigma_l = \frac{75\times 8}{4\times 0.25}

\sigma_l = 600Psi

The Mohr's circle is attached in a image to find the maximum shear stress, which is given as

\tau_{max} = \frac{\sigma_h}{2}

\tau_{max} = \frac{1200}{2}

\tau_{max} = 600Psi

Therefore the maximum shear stress in the pressure vessel when it is subjected to this pressure is 600Psi

6 0
3 years ago
A ball is dropped from some height. It bounces off the floor and rebounds with a speed that is one-half the speed it had just be
Arada [10]

Answer:

The correct option is C

Explanation:

According to third equation of motion, v

2

=u

2

+2ax

Here, u=0 m/s

a=−g and x=−h

Negative sign indicates downward direction. Displacement and acceleration both are downwards.

So,v=±

2(−g)(−h)

​

We take minus sign because it is downwards.

v=−

2gh

​

After bouncing. velocity becomes 80% of v, i.e.,

v

′

=+0.8

2gh

​

 

(positive sign because the direction of ball has reversed after bouncing and is upwards.

Applying third equation of motion again, for u=v

′

, v=0 and a=−g

v

2

=u

2

+2×a×x

Thus,

0=0.64(2gh)+2(−g)x

or

x=0.64h

3 0
2 years ago
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