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3 years ago

(0) Calculate the momentum of the vehicle when it moves at the maximum speed of 90 km/h with load of 3000 kg

Physics

1 answer:

Westkost [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: $75000kg*m/s$

Explanation:

$p=mv$

where;

p = momentum

m = mass = 3000kg

v = velocity = 25m/s

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The first thing we need to do is convert 90km/h to m/s. Our conversion factors here are: 1km = 1000m and 1h = 3600s

$90km/h(\frac{1000m}{1km})(\frac{1h}{3600s} )=25m/s$

Plug your values in the formula:

$p=(3000kg)(25m/s)\\p=75000kg*m/s$

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To solve this problem we will use the linear motion kinematic equations, for which the change of speed squared with the acceleration and the change of position. The acceleration in this case will be the same given by gravity, so our values would be given as,

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Through the aforementioned formula we will have to

$v_f^2-v_i^2 = 2ax$

The particulate part of the rest, so the final speed would be

$v_f^2 = 2gx$

$v_f=\sqrt{2(9.8)(3.1)}$

$v_f = 7.79m/s$

Now from Newton's second law we know that

$F = ma$

Here,

m = mass

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$F = m\frac{dv}{dt}$

Replacing we have that,

$F = (89)\frac{7.79}{0.5}$

$F = 1386.62N$

Therefore the force that the water exert on the man is 1386.62

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3 years ago

I'm trying to find the potential energy of a planet using formula G M(sun) x m(planet) / r. I have given G - newton's graviation

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$-5.39\times10^{33} J$

Explanation:

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MArishka [77]

Answer:

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This a vector quantity

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3 years ago

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to 10 Hz. Superimposed on this signal is 60-Hz noise with an amplitude of 0.1 V. It is desired to attenuate the 60-Hz signal to

givi [52]

Answer:

$G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1$

If we square both sides we got:

$G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1$

We divide both sides by $G^2$ and we got:

$(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}$

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

$2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})$

And solving for n we got:

$n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}$

And replacing we got:

$n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}$

$n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18$

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Explanation:

For this case we can use the formula for the Butterworth filter gain given by:

[tec] G = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}}}[/tex]

Where:

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$f_c = 10 Hz$ represent the corner frequency

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$G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1$

If we square both sides we got:

$G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1$

We divide both sides by $G^2$ and we got:

$(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}$

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

$2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})$

And solving for n we got:

$n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}$

And replacing we got:

$n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}$

$n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18$

And since n needs to be an integer the correct answer would be n=2 for the filter order.

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3 years ago