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3 years ago

I will mark brainliest!

Physics

2 answers:

djyliett [7]3 years ago

6 0

Lots of time a storm surge will follow because of all the precipitation.

Dvinal [7]3 years ago

3 0

Normally a storm surge.

Experience: I lived through Andrew and Wilma

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Very far from earth (at R- oo), a spacecraft has run out of fuel and its kinetic energy is zero. If only the gravitational force

Margaret [11]

Answer:

Speed of the spacecraft right before the collision: $\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e}}{R\text{e}}}$ .

Assumption: the earth is exactly spherical with a uniform density.

Explanation:

This question could be solved using the conservation of energy.

The mechanical energy of this spacecraft is the sum of:

the kinetic energy of this spacecraft, and
the (gravitational) potential energy of this spacecraft.

Let $m$ denote the mass of this spacecraft. At a distance of $R$ from the center of the earth (with mass $M_\text{e}$ ), the gravitational potential energy ( $\mathrm{GPE}$ ) of this spacecraft would be:

$\displaystyle \text{GPE} = -\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R}$ .

Initially, $R$ (the denominator of this fraction) is infinitely large. Therefore, the initial value of $\mathrm{GPE}$ will be infinitely close to zero.

On the other hand, the question states that the initial kinetic energy ( $\rm KE$ ) of this spacecraft is also zero. Therefore, the initial mechanical energy of this spacecraft would be zero.

Right before the collision, the spacecraft would be very close to the surface of the earth. The distance $R$ between the spacecraft and the center of the earth would be approximately equal to $R_\text{e}$ , the radius of the earth.

The $\mathrm{GPE}$ of the spacecraft at that moment would be:

$\displaystyle \text{GPE} = -\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}$ .

Subtract this value from zero to find the loss in the $\rm GPE$ of this spacecraft:

$\begin{aligned}\text{GPE change} &= \text{Initial GPE} - \text{Final GPE} \\ &= 0 - \left(-\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}\right) = \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}} \end{aligned}$

Assume that gravitational pull is the only force on the spacecraft. The size of the loss in the $\rm GPE$ of this spacecraft would be equal to the size of the gain in its $\rm KE$ .

Therefore, right before collision, the $\rm KE$ of this spacecraft would be:

$\begin{aligned}& \text{Initial KE} + \text{KE change} \\ &= \text{Initial KE} + (-\text{GPE change}) \\ &= 0 + \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}} \\ &= \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}\end{aligned}$ .

On the other hand, let $v$ denote the speed of this spacecraft. The following equation that relates $v\!$ and $m$ to $\rm KE$ :

$\displaystyle \text{KE} = \frac{1}{2}\, m \cdot v^2$ .

Rearrange this equation to find an equation for $v$ :

$\displaystyle v = \sqrt{\frac{2\, \text{KE}}{m}}$ .

It is already found that right before the collision, $\displaystyle \text{KE} = \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}$ . Make use of this equation to find $v$ at that moment:

$\begin{aligned}v &= \sqrt{\frac{2\, \text{KE}}{m}} \\ &= \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e} \cdot m}{R_\text{e}\cdot m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e}}{R_\text{e}}}\end{aligned}$ .

6 0

2 years ago

Waves transport

Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

d)energy

Explanation:

Waves can transfer energy over distance without moving matter the entire distance. For example, an ocean wave can travel many kilometers without the water itself moving many kilometers. The water moves up and down—a motion known as a disturbance. It is the disturbance that travels in a wave, transferring energy.

5 0

2 years ago

When making sweet tea, McDonalds adds the sugar while the tea is hot. The sugar is added at this step so that the tea can be as

Lilit [14]

Answer:

Explanation:

we need the tea to be at first moist in order to get much more flavor. then supersaturated so that it increases the concentration of the flavor by it not being too sweet nor too salty. so just right.

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Why can’t a real machine ever have 100% efficiency

Harman [31]

Answer:

Almost all machines require energy to offset the effects of gravity, friction, and air/wind resistance. Thus, no machine can continually operate at 100 percent efficiency.

4 0

3 years ago

Physics question, help please!

vova2212 [387]

The change in potential energy when the block falls to ground is -480J.

The maximum change in kinetic energy of the ball is 480 J.

The initial kinetic energy of the ball is 0 J.

The final kinetic energy of the ball is 0.148J.

The initial potential energy of the ball is 0.187 J.

The final potential energy of the ball is 0 J.

The work done by the air resistance is 0.039 J.

<h3>Change in potential energy when the block falls to ground</h3>

ΔP.E = -mgh

ΔP.E = -Wh

ΔP.E = - 40 x 12

ΔP.E = -480 J

<h3>Maximum change in kinetic energy of the ball</h3>

ΔK.E = - ΔP.E

ΔK.E = - (-480 J)

ΔK.E = 480 J

<h3>Initial kinetic energy of the ball</h3>

K.Ei = 0.5mv²

where;

v is zero since it is initially at rest

K.Ei = 0.5m(0) = 0

<h3>Final kinetic energy</h3>

K.Ef = 0.5mv²

K.Ef = 0.5(0.0091)(5.7)²

K.Ef = 0.148 J

<h3>Initial potential energy of the ball</h3>

P.Ei = mghi

P.Ei = 0.0091 x 9.8 x 2.1

P.Ei = 0.187 J

<h3>Final potential energy</h3>

P.Ef = mghf

P.Ef = 0.0091 x 9.8 x 0

P.Ef = 0

<h3>Work done by the air resistance</h3>

W = ΔE

W = P.E - K.E

W = 0.187 J - 0.148 J

W = 0.039 J

Learn more about potential energy here: brainly.com/question/1242059

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7 0

1 year ago