If the kinetic energy of each ball is equal to that of the other,
then
(1/2) (mass of ppb) (speed of ppb)² = (1/2) (mass of gb) (speed of gb)²
Multiply each side by 2:
(mass of ppb) (speed of ppb)² = (mass of gb) (speed of gb)²
Divide each side by (mass of gb) and by (speed of ppb)² :
(mass of ppb)/(mass of gb) = (speed of gb)²/(speed of ppb)²
Take square root of each side:
√ (ratio of their masses) = ( 1 / ratio of their speeds)²
By trying to do this perfectly rigorously and elegantly, I'm also
using up a lot of space and guaranteeing that nobody will be
able to follow what I have written. Let's just come in from the
cold, and say it the clear, easy way:
If their kinetic energies are equal, then the product of each
mass and its speed² must be the same number.
If one ball has less mass than the other one, then the speed²
of the lighter one must be greater than the speed² of the heavier
one, in order to keep the products equal.
The pingpong ball is moving faster than the golf ball.
The directions of their motions are irrelevant.
Explanation:
It is given that,
Mass of the rim of wheel, m₁ = 7 kg
Mass of one spoke, m₂ = 1.2 kg
Diameter of the wagon, d = 0.5 m
Radius of the wagon, r = 0.25 m
Let I is the the moment of inertia of the wagon wheel for rotation about its axis.
We know that the moment of inertia of the ring is given by :


The moment of inertia of the rod about one end is given by :

l = r


For 6 spokes, 
So, the net moment of inertia of the wagon is :


So, the moment of inertia of the wagon wheel for rotation about its axis is
. Hence, this is the required solution.
Answer:
Explanation:
Given a particle of mass
M = 1.7 × 10^-3 kg
Given a potential as a function of x
U(x) = -17 J Cos[x/0.35 m]
U(x) = -17 Cos(x/0.35)
Angular frequency at x = 0
Let find the force at x = 0
F = dU/dx
F = -17 × -Sin(x/0.35) / 0.35
F = 48.57 Sin(x/0.35)
At x = 0
Sin(0) =0
Then,
F = 0 N
So, from hooke's law
F = -kx
Then,
0 = -kx
This shows that k = 0
Then, angular frequency can be calculated using
ω = √(k/m)
So, since k = 0 at x = 0
Then,
ω = √0/m
ω = √0
ω = 0 rad/s
So, the angular frequency is 0 rad/s
Answer:
true
Explanation:
i think it's true because I took a quiz on this
Answer:
A. Prism
Explanation:
In the experiment we are able to isolate different wavelengths by shining the light through a prism, which separates the different wavelengths through refraction.