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expeople1 [14]
3 years ago
5

If all objects have gravitational pulls, why is every object not being constantly accelerated toward every other object?

Physics
2 answers:
boyakko [2]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Some object have less gravitational pull than other objects.

Explanation:

lisov135 [29]3 years ago
6 0
The earth always produced the same acceleration on every object. But the gravitational force the earth exerts on the objects is different. Their masses are just as frenzy so the effect we see (acceleration) is the same for each.
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What are the damages or effects of sewage dumps into natural water sources???
masha68 [24]

Answer:

Sewage dumps pollute our waterways causing death of marine life, water pollution, and disease.

Explanation:

Sewage dumps. bring disease or death to our ecosystems

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A periodic wave with wavelength 2m has a speed of 4m/s. What is the waves frequency?.
Gekata [30.6K]

The wave frequency is 2 Hz.

What is wave frequency ?

The number of waves that pass through a fixed point in a given amount of time is referred to as the wave frequency. The hertz is the SI unit for wave frequency (Hz).

f = v / w

where,

f = frequency\\v = speed \\w = wavelength

Given,

v = 4 m/s, w = 2 m

f = 4/2 \\f = 2 Hz\\

The waves frequency is 2 Hz.

To know more about wave frequency,check out:

brainly.com/question/15830195

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
A commuter backs her car out of her garage with an acceleration of 1.40 m/s2.A) How long does it take her to reach a speed of 2.
AURORKA [14]

Answer:

(A) 1.43secs

(B) -2.50m/s^2

Explanation:

A commuter backs her car out of her garage with an acceleration of 1.40m/s^2

(A) When the speed is 2.00m/s then, the time can be calculated as follows

t= Vf-Vo/a

The values given are a= 1.40m/s^2 , Vf= 2.00m/s, Vo= 0

= 2.00-0/1.40

= 2.00/1.40

= 1.43secs

(B) The deceleration when the time is 0.800secs can be calculated as follows

a= Vf-Vo/t

= 0-2.00/0.800

= -2.00/0.800

= -2.50m/s^2

4 0
2 years ago
Couldn’t you technically make infinite speed by putting a car in a vacuum chamber? Since top speed it made by the amount of forc
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

No

Explanation:

For infinite speed to be achevied, one must have no sink of energy to spend. The source of entropy in this example, is the tires hitting the surface, producing heat and friction. Not to mention that you'd still need fuel to start the car, and an infinite tunnel or track, which would be impossible and speed up to process of energy loss through entropy quicker.

7 0
2 years ago
Your classmate says that if all the molecules in a particular liquid had the same speed, and some were able to evaporate, the re
babymother [125]
The molecules which evaporate presumably take heat away from the liquid. So, I'd disagree with the classmate. Whether the amount of cooling would differ from the usual case wherein the molecules have different speeds is another question. 
I guess the argument goes something along the lines of that the faster moving and therefore most kinetically energetic molecues evaporate and take away most heat. But if there's no faster moving molecules, 'cos they all have the same speed well, then presumably they'd all take away the same amount of heat. So, maybe the cooling would be less. No cooling though ??? Hmmmm dunno .... i think not ....
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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