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Nezavi [6.7K]
3 years ago
8

A wagon wheel consists of 8 spokes of uniform diamter, each of mass m, and length L. The outer ring has a mass m rin. What is th

e moment of inertia of the wheel through an axis through the center and perpendicular to the plane of the ring? Assume that each spoke extends from the center to the outer ring is of negligible thickness.
Physics
1 answer:
Genrish500 [490]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

L^2(\dfrac{8m}{3}+m_r)

Explanation:

m = Mass of each rod

L = Length of rod = Radius of ring

m_r = Mass of ring

Moment of inertia of a spoke

\dfrac{mL^2}{3}

For 8 spokes

8\dfrac{mL^2}{3}

Moment of inertia of ring

m_rL^2

Total moment of inertia

8\dfrac{mL^2}{3}+m_rL^2\\\Rightarrow L^2(\dfrac{8m}{3}+m_r)

The moment of inertia of the wheel through an axis through the center and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is L^2(\dfrac{8m}{3}+m_r).

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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A closely wound, circular coil with a diameter of 4.30 cm has 470 turns and carries a current of 0.460 A .
Nadusha1986 [10]

Hi there!

a)
Let's use Biot-Savart's law to derive an expression for the magnetic field produced by ONE loop.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

dB = Differential Magnetic field element

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

R = radius of loop (2.15 cm = 0.0215 m)

i = Current in loop (0.460 A)

For a circular coil, the radius vector and the differential length vector are ALWAYS perpendicular. So, for their cross-product, since sin(90) = 1, we can disregard it.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{r^2}

Now, let's write the integral, replacing 'dl' with 'ds' for an arc length:
B = \int \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{ids}{R^2}

Taking out constants from the integral:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int ds

Since we are integrating around an entire circle, we are integrating from 0 to 2π.

B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0 \, ds

Evaluate:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  (2\pi R- 0) = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}

Plugging in our givens to solve for the magnetic field strength of one loop:

B = \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (0.460)}{2(0.0215)} = 1.3443 \mu T

Multiply by the number of loops to find the total magnetic field:
B_T = N B = 0.00631 = \boxed{6.318 mT}

b)

Now, we have an additional component of the magnetic field. Let's use Biot-Savart's Law again:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

In this case, we cannot disregard the cross-product. Using the angle between the differential length and radius vector 'θ' (in the diagram), we can represent the cross-product as cosθ. However, this would make integrating difficult. Using a right triangle, we can use the angle formed at the top 'φ', and represent this as sinφ.  

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} sin\theta}{r^2}

Using the diagram, if 'z' is the point's height from the center:

r = \sqrt{z^2 + R^2 }\\\\sin\phi = \frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}}

Substituting this into our expression:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{(\sqrt{z^2 + R^2})^2} }(\frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}})\\\\dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{iRd\vec{l}}{(z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}} }

Now, the only thing that isn't constant is the differential length (replace with ds). We will integrate along the entire circle again:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0, ds

Evaluate:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} (2\pi R)\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Multiplying by the number of loops:
B_T= \frac{\mu_0 N iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Plug in the given values:
B_T= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (470) (0.460)(0.0215)^2}{2 ((0.095)^2 + (0.0215)^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \\\\ =  0.00006795 = \boxed{67.952 \mu T}

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Answer:

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Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Effort (E) = 80 lbs

Load (L) = 320 lbs

Mechanical advantage (MA) =?

Mechanical advantage is simply defined as the ratio of load to effort. Mathematically, it is expressed as:

Mechanical advantage = Load / Effort

MA = L / E

With the above formula, we can obtain the mechanical advantage as illustrated below:

Effort (E) = 80 lbs

Load (L) = 320 lbs

Mechanical advantage (MA) =?

MA = L / E

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2 years ago
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