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Sauron [17]
3 years ago
8

Miranda performed an experiment to determine what makes an object sink

Physics
1 answer:
NemiM [27]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I guess the answer is

-The mass and volume of an object determine if it will sink or float

Explanation:

An object that has a higher density than the liquid it's in will sink. An object that has a lower density than the liquid it's in will float.

density=mass/volume

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Hello everyone I have a question for you today. So you know we have discovered black holes and have theorized about white holes
Scrat [10]

Answer:

White hole is an impossible object in universe. ... This means that in a hypothetical universe where there is a black and a white hole, in a short time after their first interaction the white hole will become another black hole so that the system will end up with two black holes.

8 0
3 years ago
Calculate the lowest energy (in ev) for an electron in an infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

The lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

To find the answer, we have to know more about the infinite well.

<h3>What is the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well?</h3>
  • It is given that, the infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
  • We have the expression for energy of electron in an infinite well as,

                  E_n=\frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}

  • where;

                m=9.1*10^{-31}kg\\L=0.050*10^{-3}m\\h=6.63*10^{-34}Js\\n=1

  • Thus, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is,

                E_1=\frac{(6.63*10^{-34})^2}{8*9.1*10^{-31}*(0.050*10^{-3})}=1.2*10^{-33}J

Thus, we can conclude that, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

Learn more about the infinite well here:

brainly.com/question/20317353

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
PLEASE ANSWER ASAP BEFORE MY TEACHER AND MY MOM KILLES ME PLEASE ASAP
aleksley [76]

Answer:

red is not at the bottom. its density is 0.9 not 9!

also I don't need the brainlest thanks

6 0
2 years ago
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A billiard ball (ball #1) moving at 5.00 m/s strikes a stationary ball (ball #2) of the same mass. after the collision, ball #1
Rashid [163]
If it is completely elastic, you can calculate the velocity of the second ball from the kinetic energy 
<span>v1 = velocity of #1 </span>
<span>v1' = velocity of #1 after collision </span>
<span>v2' = velocity of #2 after collision. </span>

<span>kinetic energy: v1^2 = v1' ^2 + v2' ^2 (1/2 and m cancel out) </span>
<span>5^2 = 4.35^2 + v2' ^2 </span>
<span>v2 = 2.46 m/s <--- ANSWER</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help. 8th grade science
Aneli [31]

Answer:

false

Explanation:

It doesn't the copper wire wouldn't even be pulled by the magnet at all and the electricity would stay inside of the the force of the copper wire

3 0
3 years ago
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