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Tasya [4]
3 years ago
14

Objects A and B, of mass M and 2M respectively, are each pushed a distance d straight up an inclined plane by a force F parallel

to the plane. The coefficient of kinetic friction between each mass and the plane has the same value μ.k At the highest point is:______
a. KEA > KEB
b. KEA = KEB
c. KEA < KEB
d. The work done by F on A is greater than the work done by F on B.
e. The work done by F on A is less than the work done by F on B.
Physics
1 answer:
krek1111 [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is <u>option (A) that is KEA > KEB .</u>

Explanation:

Let us calculate -

If the object is straighten up and inclined plane , the work done is

W=F_d- F_f_r_id-F_gh

W=F_d-\mu_kmgdcos\theta-mgdsin\theta

The change in kinetic energy is ,

   \Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2-\frac{1}{2}m\nu_0^2

At the top of the inclined plane , the velocity is zero

So,

\Delta K=\frac{1}{2} m(0)^2-\frac{1}{2}m\nu_0^2

\Delta KE=-\frac{1}{2}m\nu_0^2

From the work energy theorem , we have W=-\Delta K in case of friction , so

\frac{1}{2}m\nu_0^2=Fd-\mu_kmgdcos\theta-mgdsin\theta

KE=Fd-\mu_kmgdcos\theta-mgdsin\theta

For object A-

KE_A=Fd-\mu_kmgdcos\theta-mgdsin\theta

For object B

KE_B= Fd -2\mu_kMgdcos\theta-2Mgdsin\theta

KE_B= Fd -2(\mu_kMgdcos\theta-Mgdsin\theta)

Thus , larger mass is going to mean less total work and a lower kinetic energy .

From the above results , we get

KE_A >KE_B

<u>Therefore , option A is correct .</u>

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Answer:

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Explanation:

From the question we are told that

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The kinetic energy of the satellite is mathematically represented as

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where v is the speed of the satellite which is mathematically represented as

     v  = \sqrt{\frac{G  M}{r^2} }

=>  v^2  =  \frac{GM }{r}

substituting this into the equation

      KE  =  \frac{ 1}{2} *\frac{GMm}{r}

Now the gravitational force of the planet is mathematically represented as

      F_g  = \frac{GMm}{r^2}

Where M is the mass of the planet and  m is the mass of the satellite

 Now looking at the formula for KE we see that we can represent it as

     KE  =  \frac{ 1}{2} *[\frac{GMm}{r^2}] * r

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substituting values

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Answer:

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Explanation:

Given;

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Maximum induced emf is given as;

E = NBAω

where

ω is angular velocity (ω = 2πf)

E = NBA2πf

where;

f is the minimum frequency, measured in hertz (Hz)

f = E / (NBA2π)

f = 8 / (200 x 30 x 10⁻³  x 300 x 10⁻⁴ x 2 x 3.142)

f = 7.073 Hz

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