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Artemon [7]
3 years ago
12

7. The binary addition 1 + 1 + 1 gives ​

Engineering
2 answers:
scoray [572]3 years ago
7 0
1+1+1=3 should be the answer right?
kenny6666 [7]3 years ago
4 0

11 [2-bit]

011 [3-bit]

0011 [4-bit]

________

1 + 1 + 1 = 3

________

3 = 2 + 1

2¹ 2⁰

3 = (.. × 0) + (2¹ × 1) + (2⁰ × 1)

3 = ..011

Since 2³, 2⁴, 2⁵, .. are not used, they are represented as 0.

[ 2⁷ 2⁶ 2⁵ 2⁴ 2³ 2² 2¹ 2⁰ ]

[ 128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1 ]

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Calculate the number of vacancies per cubic meter at 1000∘C for a metal that has an energy for vacancy formation of 1.22 eV/atom
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

N = Na.P/A------(1)

Na = avogadro's number = 6.02210²³

P = density

A = atomic weight of metal

When we substitute into equation 1 above we get

1.0x10²⁹atoms/m³

From here we calculate the number of vacancies

T = 1000⁰c = 1273K

The formula to use is

Nv= Nexo(Qt/K.T) -----(2)

Qt = 1.22eV

K = Boltzmann's constant = 8.6210x10^-5

When we substitute values into equation 2

We get Nv = 1.49 x 10²⁴m-3

Therefore option c is correct

Check attachment for a more detailed calculation of this question

6 0
3 years ago
An op-amp is connected in an inverting configuration with R1 = 1kW and R2 = 10kW, and a load resistor connected at the output, R
Svetllana [295]

Answer:

View Image

Explanation:

You didn't provide me a picture of the opamp.

I'm gonna assume that this is an ideal opamp, therefore the input impedance can be assumed to be ∞ . This basically implies that...

  1. no current will go in the inverting(-) and noninverting(+) side of the opamp
  2. V₊ = V₋  , so whatever voltage is at the noninverting side will also be the voltage at the inverting side

Since no current is going into the + and - side of the opamp, then

i₁ = i₂

Since V₊ is connected to ground (0V) then V₋ must also be 0V.

V₊ = V₋  = 0

Use whatever method you want to solve for v_out and v_in then divide them. There's so many different ways of solving this circuit.

You didn't give me what the input voltage was so I can't give you the entire answer. I'll just give you the equations needed to plug in your values to get your answers.

8 0
3 years ago
A cross beam in a highway bridge experiences a stress of 14 ksi due to the dead weight of the bridge structure. When a fully loa
zlopas [31]

Answer:

a) 2.452

b) 1.256

Explanation:

Stress due to dead weight. = 14 Ksi

Stress due to fully loaded tractor-trailer = 45Ksi

ultimate tensile strength of beam = 76 Ksi

yield strength = 50 Ksi

endurance limit = 38 Ksi

Determine the safety factor for an infinite fatigue life

a) If mean stress on fatigue strength is ignored

β = ( 45 - 14 ) / 2

  = 15.5 Ksi

hence FOS ( factor of safety ) = endurance limit / β

                                                 = 38 / 15.5 = 2.452

b) When mean stress on fatigue strength is considered

β2 = 45 + 14 / 2

    = 29.5 Ksi

Ratio  = β / β2 = 15.5 / 29.5 = 0.5254

Next step: applying Goodman method

Sa =  [ ( 0.5254 * 38 *76 ) / ( 0.5254*76 + 38 ) ]

     = 19.47 Ksi

hence the FOS ( factor of safety ) = Sa / β

                                                      = 19.47 / 15.5 = 1.256

8 0
2 years ago
1. A drawing of a cabinet shows that its dimensions are 9cm. by 4cm. The drawing indicates 1:50 scaling. What are the actual dim
yanalaym [24]

Explanation:

This means that for every 1 cm on the drawing, there is 80 cm in reality. To put it another way, take this

1:80 means that the building is 80 times the size of the drawing

80:1 means that the drawing is 80 times the size of the building

If it were 80:1, the drawing itself would be over 100m long.

5 0
3 years ago
Air at 27°C and a velocity of 5 m/s passes over the small region As (20 mm × 20 mm) on a large surface, which is maintained at T
JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

a) The maximum possible heat removal rate = 2.20w

b) Fin length = 37.4 mm

c) Fin effectiveness = 89.6

d) Percentage increase = 435%

Explanation:

See the attached file for the explanation.

5 0
3 years ago
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