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2 years ago

Explain how magnets have an attractive force and repulsive force

1 answer:

7 0

The force between two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction is attractive. It is repulsive if the currents are in opposite directions.

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A solenoid with 3,000.0 turns is 70.0 cm long. If its self-inductance is 25.0 mH, what is its radius? (The value of μ0 is 4π x 1

nevsk [136]

Answer:

A. 2.2*10^-2m

Explanation:

Using

Area = length x L/ uo xN²

So A = 0.7m * 25 x 10^-3H /( 4π x10^-7*

3000²)

A = 17.5*10^-3/ 1.13*10^-5

= 15.5*10^-2m²

Area= π r ²

15.5E-2/3.142 = r²

2.2*10^2m

Explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

Define Nuclear Physics ?

murzikaleks [220]

Answer:

Definition. Nuclear physics is the study of the protons and neutrons at the centre of an atom and the interactions that hold them together in a space just a few femtometres (10-15 metres) across. Example nuclear reactions include radioactive decay, fission, the break-up of a nucleus, and fusion, the merging of nuclei.

Explanation:

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3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

At what displacement of a sho is the energy half kinetic and half potential? what fraction of the total energy of a sho is kinet

expeople1 [14]

As we know that KE and PE is same at a given position

so we will have as a function of position given as

$KE = \frac{1}{2}m\omega^2(A^2 - x^2)$

also the PE is given as function of position as

$PE = \frac{1}{2}m\omega^2x^2$

now it is given that

KE = PE

now we will have

$\frac{1}{2}m\omega^2(A^2 - x^2) = \frac{1}{2}m\omega^2x^2$

$A^2 - x^2 = x^2$

$2x^2 = A^2$

$x = \frac{A}{\sqrt2}$

so the position is 0.707 times of amplitude when KE and PE will be same

Part b)

KE of SHO at x = A/3

we can use the formula

$KE = \frac{1}{2}m\omega^2(A^2 - x^2)$

now to find the fraction of kinetic energy

$f = \frac{KE}{TE} = \frac{A^2 - x^2}{A^2}$

$f = \frac{A^2 - (\frac{A}{3})^2}{A^2}$

$f_k = \frac{8}{9}$

now since total energy is sum of KE and PE

so fraction of PE at the same position will be

$f_{PE} = 1 - f_k$

$f_{PE} = 1 - (8/9) = 1/9$

7 0

3 years ago

The mass of an electron is 9.11 x 10-31 kg. If you want to increase the speed of the

Harlamova29_29 [7]

I'm not sure of this question, yet i know you may get angry but, just know your loved and if going through a hard time i'm so so sorry, i know how it feels it sucks. take care of yourself, drink water, listen to that one song that makes you dance in your room and go do what YOU love. your beautiful your perfect and dont listen to what anyone says. i love u, everyone loves u, i know its scary but it happens to everyone life isnt a peice of cake unfortunatly and it sucks but woahh your strong! if you need someone to talk to leave a comment below, happy hoildays everyone!

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5 0

2 years ago

A fluid flows along the x axis with a velocity given by V = ( x / t ) ˆ i , where x is in feet and t in seconds. (a) Plot the sp

umka21 [38]

Answer:

V_local = -x/t^2

V_convec = x/t^2

a = V_local + V_convec = 0

e) When a particle moves towards postive x direction its convective velocity increases, but at the same time the local velocity deacreases (at the same rate) when time increases

Explanation:

Hi!

You can see plots for a) and b) attached on this document

The local acceleration is just teh aprtial derivative of the velocity with respect to t:

$\frac{dV}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} \frac{x}{t}=- \frac{x}{t^2}$

And the convective acceleration is given by the product of the velocity times the gradient of the velocity, that is:

$\vec{v} \cdot \nabla \vec{v} = v ( \frac{dv}{dx} ) =\frac{x}{t} \frac{1}{t} = \frac{x}{t^2}$

Since the acceleration of any fluid particle is the sum of the local and convective accelerations, we can easily see that it is equal to zero, since they are equal but with opposit sign

This is because of teh particular form of the velocity. A particle will move towards areas of higher velocities (convectice acceleration), but as time increases, the velocity is also decreasing (local acceleration), and the sum of these quantities adds up to zero

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3 years ago