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Oduvanchick [21]
3 years ago
7

An 8.0-newton wooden block slides across a

Physics
1 answer:
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
7 0
If the block is sliding at constant velocity then its speed is constant. That means it is not losing any kinetic energy. There is no friction acting and the coefficient of kinetic friction is zero. Sadly, that choice of answer is not offered.
You might be interested in
An electron is released from rest at a distance of 6.00 cm from a proton. If the proton is held in place, how fast will the elec
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

91.87 m/s

Explanation:

<u>Given:</u>

  • x = initial distance of the electron from the proton = 6 cm = 0.06 m
  • y = initial distance of the electron from the proton = 3 cm = 0.03 m
  • u = initial velocity of the electron = 0 m/s

<u>Assume:</u>

  • m = mass of an electron = 9.1\times 10^{-31}\ kg
  • v = final velocity of the electron
  • e = magnitude of charge on an electron = 1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C
  • p = magnitude of charge on a proton = 1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C

We know that only only electric field due to proton causes to move from a distance of 6 cm from proton to 3 cm distance from it. This means the electric force force does work on the electron to move it from one initial position to the final position which is equal to the change in potential energy of the electron due to proton.

Now, according to the work-energy theorem, the total work done by the electric force on the electron due to proton is equal to the kinetic energy change in it.

\therefore \textrm{Kinetic energy change}= \textrm{Change in potential energy}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}m(v^2-u^2)= \dfrac{kpe}{y}-\dfrac{kpe}{x}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}m(v^2-(0)^2)= \dfrac{kpe}{0.03}-\dfrac{kpe}{0.06}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2= \dfrac{100kpe}{3}-\dfrac{100kpe}{6}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2= \dfrac{100kpe}{6}\\

\Rightarrow v^2= \dfrac{100kpe\times 2}{6m}\\\Rightarrow v^2= \dfrac{100kpe}{3m}\\\Rightarrow v^2= \dfrac{100\times 9\times 10^9\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}}{3\times 9.1\times 10^{-31}}\\\Rightarrow v^2=8.44\times 10^3\\\Rightarrow v=91.87\ m/s\\

Hence, when the electron is at a distance of c cm from the proton, it moves with a velocity of 91.87 m/s.

8 0
3 years ago
What are the units of acceleration?
Marina86 [1]

Acceleration is any change in speed or direction of motion.

The dimension of speed is [length/time],
so a change is [length/time²].

Popular units include [meter/second²] and [feet/second²] .
________________________

Direction almost always boils down to an angle, (which technically
has no dimensions), so a change in direction is  [angle/time] .

Popular units include [radian/second] and [degree/second] .

5 0
3 years ago
The graph below shows the velocity of a car over time.
jekas [21]

Answer:

D. Calculate the area under the graph.

Explanation:

The distance made during a particular period of time is calculated as (distance in m) = (velocity in m/s) * (time in s)

You can think of such a calculation as determining the area of a rectangle whose sides are velocity and time period. If you make the time period very very small, the rectangle will become a narrow "bar" - a bar with height determined by the average velocity during that corresponding short period of time. The area is, again, the distance made during that time. Now, you can cover the entire area under the curve using such narrow bars. Their areas adds up, approximately, to the total distance made over the entire span of motion. From this you can already see why the answer D is the correct one.

Going even further, one can make the rectangular bars arbitrarily narrow and cover the area under the curve with more and more of these. In fact, in the limit, this is something called a Riemann sum and leads to the definition of the Riemann integral. Using calculus, the area under a curve (hence the distance in this case) can be calculated precisely, under certain existence criteria.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a game of pool, the cue ball moves at a speed of 2 m/s toward the eight ball. When the cue ball hits the eight ball, the cue
agasfer [191]

Answer:

a)  p₀ = 1.2 kg m / s,  b) p_f = 1.2 kg m / s,  c)   θ = 12.36, d)  v_{2f} = 1.278 m/s

Explanation:

a system formed by the two balls, which are isolated and the forces during the collision are internal, therefore the moment is conserved

a) the initial impulse is

        p₀ = m v₁₀ + 0

        p₀ = 0.6 2

        p₀ = 1.2 kg m / s

b) as the system is isolated, the moment is conserved so

       p_f = 1.2 kg m / s

we define a reference system where the x-axis coincides with the initial movement of the cue ball

we write the final moment for each axis

X axis

        p₀ₓ = 1.2 kg m / s

        p_{fx} = m v1f cos 20 + m v2f cos θ

        p₀ = p_f

       1.2 = 0.6 (-0.8) cos 20+ 0.6 v_{2f} cos θ

        1.2482 = v_{2f} cos θ

Y axis  

       p_{oy} = 0

       p_{fy} = m v_{1f} sin 20 + m v_{2f} cos θ

       0 = 0.6 (-0.8) sin 20 + 0.6 v_{2f} sin θ

       0.2736 = v_{2f} sin θ

we write our system of equations

        0.2736 = v_{2f} sin θ

        1.2482 = v_{2f} cos θ

divide to solve

        0.219 = tan θ

         θ = tan⁻¹ 0.21919

         θ = 12.36

let's look for speed

           0.2736 = v_{2f} sin θ

            v_{2f} = 0.2736 / sin 12.36

           v_{2f} = 1.278 m / s

7 0
2 years ago
In the macroscopic world, you know that you can hear but cannot see around corners. Under what conditions does light bend around
omeli [17]

Answer:

a much larger slit, the phenomenon of Sound diffraction that slits for light.

this is a series of equally spaced lines giving a diffraction envelope

Explanation:

The diffraction phenomenon is described by the expression

    d sin θ = m λ

Where d is the distance of the slit, m the order of diffraction that is an integer and λ the wavelength.

 

For train the diffraction phenomenon, the d / Lam ratio is decisive if this relation of the gap separation in much greater than the wavelength does not reduce the diffraction phenomenon but the phenomena of geometric optics.

The wavelength range for visible light is 4 10⁻⁷ m to 7 10⁻⁷ m. The wavelength range for sound is 17 m to 1.7 10⁻² m. Therefore, with a much larger slit, the phenomenon of Sound diffraction that slits for light.

When we add a second slit we have the diffraction of each one separated by the distance between them, when the integrals are made we arrive at the result of the interference phenomenon, a this is a series of equally spaced lines giving a diffraction envelope

When I separate the distance between the two slits a lot, the time comes when we see two individual diffraction patterns

6 0
3 years ago
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