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EastWind [94]
3 years ago
11

A deviant person would behave in a culturally unacceptable

Physics
1 answer:
aivan3 [116]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

This is because to know how someone behaves, they have to perform a particular action.

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A student is observing a pendulum swinging back and forth. Each time it swings, the pendulum bob reaches a lower maximum, and ev
vodomira [7]

Answer:

the pendulum loses momentum and stops because of gravity and wind resistance. it does not violate the law of conservation of energy because it is not gaining any more momentum than what it had started with

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
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What is the direction of the force on a positive charge when passing through a magnetic field as indicated in this diagram? Expl
maria [59]

Answer:

The direction of the magnetic force on a moving charge is perpendicular to the plane formed by v and B and follows right hand rule–1 (RHR-1)

Explanation:

hope this helps

3 0
3 years ago
In which situation is the acceleration of the car negative?
VikaD [51]
When a car is slowing down, it has a negative acceleration.  Although it is not going a negative speed, it is decreasing in velocity, which is the definition of a negative acceleration.

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4 0
2 years ago
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Use the law of conservation of energy (assume no friction nor air resistance) to determine the kinetic and potential energy at t
slava [35]

Answer:

Part A

1) At the starting point, we have;

PE = 40,000 J

2) PE = 0 J, KE = 40,000 J

3) KE = 20,000 J

4) PE = 15,000 J

5) KE = 32,500 J

6) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

7) KE = 35,000 J

8) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

Part B

The total Mechanical Energy = ME = 40,000 J

At the final point, we have;

ME = KE + PE = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

Explanation:

Part A

By the law of conservation of energy, we have;

ME = PE + KE

Where;

ME = The total Mechanical Energy of the system

PE = The Potential Energy of the system

KE = The Kinetic Energy of the system

Where there is no friction, we have;

At the final stage, KE = 40,000 J. PE = 0 J

Therefore, ME = PE + KE = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

1) At the starting point, we have;

KE = 0 J, therefore, PE = ME - KE = 40,000 J - 0 J = 40,000 J

2) At the bottom of the roller coaster, at the same level the PE is taken as PE = 0 J at the final stage, we have;

PE = 0 J, therefore, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 0 J = 40,000 J

3) Where PE = 20,000 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 20,000 J = 20,000 J

4) Where KE = 25,000 J, PE = ME - KE = 40,000 J - 25,000 J = 15,000 J

5) Where PE = 7,500 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 7,500 J = 32,500 J

6) At the bottom KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

7) Where PE = 5,000 J, KE = ME - PE = 40,000 J - 5,000 J = 35,000 J

8) KE = 40,000 J, PE = 0 J

Part B

The given that there is no friction nor air resistance, the total Mechanical Energy, ME, is constant and equal to the sum of the Potential Energy, PE and the Kinetic Energy, KE, as follows;

ME = KE + PE

At the final point, we have;

ME = 40,000 J + 0 J = 40,000 J

The total Mechanical Energy = ME = 40,000 J

8 0
2 years ago
Help me help me help me
spin [16.1K]
I think d because they are both increasing
7 0
2 years ago
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