Answer:
E = k Q / [d(d+L)]
Explanation:
As the charge distribution is continuous we must use integrals to solve the problem, using the equation of the elective field
E = k ∫ dq/ r² r^
"k" is the Coulomb constant 8.9875 10 9 N / m2 C2, "r" is the distance from the load to the calculation point, "dq" is the charge element and "r^" is a unit ventor from the load element to the point.
Suppose the rod is along the x-axis, let's look for the charge density per unit length, which is constant
λ = Q / L
If we derive from the length we have
λ = dq/dx ⇒ dq = L dx
We have the variation of the cgarge per unit length, now let's calculate the magnitude of the electric field produced by this small segment of charge
dE = k dq / x²2
dE = k λ dx / x²
Let us write the integral limits, the lower is the distance from the point to the nearest end of the rod "d" and the upper is this value plus the length of the rod "del" since with these limits we have all the chosen charge consider
E = k 
We take out the constant magnitudes and perform the integral
E = k λ (-1/x)
Evaluating
E = k λ [ 1/d - 1/ (d+L)]
Using λ = Q/L
E = k Q/L [ 1/d - 1/ (d+L)]
let's use a bit of arithmetic to simplify the expression
[ 1/d - 1/ (d+L)] = L /[d(d+L)]
The final result is
E = k Q / [d(d+L)]
Answer:
The electron’s velocity is 0.9999 c m/s.
Explanation:
Given that,
Rest mass energy of muon = 105.7 MeV
We know the rest mass of electron = 0.511 Mev
We need to calculate the value of γ
Using formula of energy
Put the value into the formula
We need to calculate the electron’s velocity
Using formula of velocity
Put the value into the formula
Hence, The electron’s velocity is 0.9999 c m/s.
Answer:
Amplitude.
Explanation:
A wave can be defined as a disturbance in a medium that progressively transports energy from a source location to another location without the transportation of matter.
In Science, there are two (2) types of wave and these include;
I. Electromagnetic waves: it doesn't require a medium for its propagation and as such can travel through an empty space or vacuum. An example of an electromagnetic wave is light.
II. Mechanical waves: it requires a medium for its propagation and as such can't travel through an empty space or vacuum. An example of a mechanical wave is sound.
An amplitude can be defined as a waveform that's measured from the center line (its origin or equilibrium position) to the bottom of a trough or top of a crest.
Hence, an amplitude is a word that describes the maximum displacement a point moves from its rest position when a wave passes.
On a graph, the vertical axis (y-axis) is the amplitude of a waveform and this simply means that, it's measured vertically.
Mathematically, the amplitude of a wave is given by the formula;
x = Asin(ωt + ϕ)
Where;
x is displacement of the wave measured in meters.
A is the amplitude.
ω is the angular frequency measured in rad/s.
t is the time period measured in seconds.
ϕ is the phase angle.
Answer:
Explanation:
The rod will act as pendulum for small oscillation .
Time period of oscillation
angular frequency ω = 2π / T
= 
b )
ω = 20( given )
velocity = ω r = ω l
Let the maximum angular displacement in terms of degree be θ .
1/2 m v ² = mgl ( 1 - cosθ ) ,
[ l-lcosθ is loss of height . we have applied law of conservation of mechanical energy .]
.5 ( ω l )² = gl( 1 - cos θ )
.5 ω² l = g ( 1 - cosθ )
1 - cosθ = .5 ω² l /g
cosθ = 1 - .5 ω² l /g
θ can be calculated , if value of l is given .
The correct answer is A. 32.5
Mechanical advantage is the ratio of force that is input into a machine to the force output.
Mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is calculated by dividing the radius of the wheel by that of the axle.
MA=R/r where R is the radius of the wheel and r is the radius of the axle.
Substituting for the values in the question gives:
MA=26cm/0.8cm
=32.5
