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3 years ago

How did the iron filing patterns show attractive forces between magnetic poles?

Physics

2 answers:

nasty-shy [4]3 years ago

4 0

When the magnet is placed on the glass, it is attracted to the iron filings. The pattern of the iron filings shows that the lines of force that make up the magnetic field of the magnet. Also, The lines of force of north and south poles attract each other whereas those of two north poles fend off each other.

julia-pushkina [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

When the magnet was placed on the glass, it attracted the iron filings. The pattern of the iron filings shows the lines of force that make up the magnetic field of the magnet. ... The lines of force of north and south poles attract each other whereas those of two north poles repel each other.

Explanation:

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the average power of the Sun is 3.79x1026 Watts, answer the following questions: 13. What is the average intensity of light at E

Lemur [1.5K]

Explanation:

Given that,

Average power of sun $P=3.79\times10^{26}\ Watt$

We need to calculate the intensity of light at Earth's position

Using formula of intensity

$I=\dfrac{P_{avg}}{4\pi r^2}$

Where, I = intensity

P = power

Put the value into the formula

$I=\dfrac{3.79\times10^{26}}{4\pi\times(1.496\times10^{11})^2}$

$I=1347.616\ W/m^2$

So, The intensity is 1347.616 W/m².

(A). We need to calculate the pressure on a solar sail due to the light of the sun if it's fully reflective

Using formula for fully reflective

$P = \dfrac{2I}{c}$

Put the value into the formula

$P=\dfrac{2\times1347.616}{3\times10^{8}}$

$P=8.984\times10^{-6}\ N/m$

(B). We need to calculate the pressure on a solar sail due to the light of the sun if it's fully reflective

Using formula for fully absorptive

$P=\dfrac{I}{c}$

$P=\dfrac{1347.616}{3\times10^{8}}$

$P=4.492\times10^{-6}\ N/m$

Hence, This is the required solution.

6 0

3 years ago

An atom with seven valence electrons would most likely lose an electron to become stable true or fasle

mel-nik [20]

Answer:

false

Explanation:

since it has seven valence electrons it means it's a non metal and non metals always gain electrons.

5 0

2 years ago

As a way of determining the inductance of a coil used in a research project, a student first connects the coil to a 5.62 V batte

Reptile [31]

Answer:

Its inductance L = 166 mH

Explanation:

Since a current, I = 0.698 A is obtained when a voltage , V = 5.62 V is applied, the resistance of the coil is gotten from V = IR

R = V/I = 5.62/0.698 = 8.052 Ω

Since we have a current of I' = 0.36 A (rms) when a voltage of V' = 35.1 V (rms) is applied, the impedance Z of the coil is gotten from

V₀' = I₀'Z where V₀ = maximum voltage = √2V' and I₀ = maximum current = √2I'

Z = V'/I' = √2 × 35.1 V/√2 × 0.36 V = 97.5 Ω

WE now find the reactance X of the coil from

Z² = X² + R²

X = √(Z² - R²)

= √(97.5² - 8.05²)

= √(9506.25 - 64.8025)

= √9441.4475

= 97.17 Ω

Now, the reactance X = 2πfL where f = frequency of generator = 93.1 Hz and L = inductance of coil.

L = X/2πf

= 97.17/2π(93.1 Hz)

= 97.17 Ω/584.965 rad/s

= 0.166 H

= 166 mH

Its inductance L = 166 mH

5 0

3 years ago

In a lightning bolt, a large amount of charge flows during a time of 1.2 x 10-3 s. Assume that the bolt can be represented as a

ohaa [14]

Answer: 10.58 C has flowed during the lightning bolt

Explanation:

Given that;

Time of flow t = 1.2 × 10⁻³

perpendicular distance r = 21 m

Magnetic field B = 8.4 x 10⁻⁵ T

Now lets consider the expression for magnetic field;

B = u₀I / 2πr

the current flow is;

I = ( B × 2πr ) / u₀

so we substitute

I = ( (8.4 x 10⁻⁵) × 2 × 3.14 × 21 ) / 4π ×10⁻⁷

= 0.01107792 / 0.000001256

= 8820 A

Hence the charge flows during lightning bolt will be;

q = It

so we substitute

q = 8820 × 1.2 × 10⁻³

q = 10.58 C

therefore 10.58 C has flowed during the lightning bolt

6 0

3 years ago

two barges full of salted toad guts have a collision. the red barge has a mass of 150000kg and is traveling northwest at 0.25m/s

solniwko [45]

The final velocity of the red barge in the collision elastic is 0.311 m/s when it collides with blue barge pf mass 1000000 kg.

Final velocity(v3) of the red barge is calculated by following formula

m1×v1+ m2×v2= (m1+m2)v3

Substituting the value of m1= 150000 kg, v1= 0.25 m/s, m2= 1000000 kg, v2= 0.32 m/s

150000 × 0.25+ 1000000×0.32= (150000+1000000)×v3

37500+ 320000= 1150000×v3

357500= 1150000×v3

v3= 0.311 m/s

<h3>What is elastic collision velocity? </h3>

The velocity of the target particle after a head-on elastic impact in which the projectile is significantly more massive than the target will be roughly double that of the projectile, but the projectile velocity will remain virtually unaltered.

For more information on elastic collision velocity kindly visit to

brainly.com/question/29051562

#SPJ9

6 0

1 year ago