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Digiron [165]
3 years ago
7

The expected average rate of return for a proposed investment of $5,610,000 in a fixed asset, using straight-line depreciation,

with a useful life of 20 years, no residual value, and an expected total net income of $16,830,000 over the 20 years is (round to two decimal points). a.15.00% b.30.00% c.1.50% d.60.00%
Business
1 answer:
FinnZ [79.3K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b.30.00%

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the expected total net income of $16,830,000 over the 20 years is

Expected total net income =($16,830,000/20)/($5,610,000/2)*100

Expected total net income=$841,500/$2,805,000

Expected total net income =30.00%

Therefore the expected total net income of $16,830,000 over the 20 years is 30.00%

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Electrix Inc. is an electrical appliances manufacturing company. It distributes shares of stock to its employees by placing the
Leni [432]

Answer:

<em>Employee stock ownership  plan</em>

Explanation:

An employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) is <em>a retirement plan wherein the employer contributes its shares (or funds to purchase its stock) to the fund for the advantage of the employees of the company.</em>

The company maintains an account for every employee who participates in the program.

Over time stock shares accumulate before an employee is eligible to them.

With an ESOP, while still working with the company, you never purchase or keep the stock directly.

If an employee is fired, decides to retire, is disabled, or dies, the company must transfer the stock shares in the account of the employee.

4 0
3 years ago
The straight-line depreciation method and the double-declining-balance depreciation method: A. Produce the same depreciation exp
Artemon [7]

The relationship between the straight-line and double-declining-balance method is that they D. Produce the same total depreciation over an asset's useful life.

<h3>How are the straight-line and double-declining-balance methods related?</h3>

While they do not produce the same depreciation every year, they will eventually depreciate an asset in the same way overtime.

What this means is that both methods will depreciate an asset by the same amount at the end of the asset's life. However, the depreciation amounts will vary by method on an annual basis.

In conclusion, option D is correct.

Find out more on depreciation methods at brainly.com/question/26948130.

6 0
2 years ago
Petunia is a debtor. Her employer Quantum Investments, Inc., her ex-husband Rob, her alma mater State University, and Timely Cre
Fed [463]

Answer:

a. Petunia only

Explanation:

A petition for relief through an individual's repayment plan is a document filled out asking to pay off a debt by making small individual payments stretched out over a specific period of time, and can only be filled by the debtor and accepted by the creditors. Therefore it can only be filled out by Petunia.

4 0
3 years ago
invisible hand in Adam Smith's theory turns self-directed gain into social and economic benefits for all. true false
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

Adam Smith 'Laissez Faire' Theory implies : Markets as free mechanisms are best, they are guided by self interest which tends to bring best socio economic welfare by increasing wealth. The market 'Invisible Hand' acts as an automatic stabiliser to any economic discrepancy & any government intervention is unnecessarily distortionary.

3 0
3 years ago
Martha Manufacturing produces a single product that sells for $80. Variable costs per unit equal $32. The company expects total
garri49 [273]
Each unit sells: $80
Each unit costs to make: $32
Fixed costs: 72,000
Goal: 2,000 units sold

If they meet their goal, let's see how that would go:

(2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
160,000 - 64,000 - 72,000 = 24,000

24,000 is the profit they would make for hitting their goal.

Question 1:
What is the break-even point? The break-even means they make no money, but they also lose no money. So that final number (24,000) would be 0 instead. How many units would they have to make to hit zero?
(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 = 0.
80x - 32x = 72,000
48x = 72,000
x = 1500 units

We can verify by using our first formula we've already determined, using this new value for units.
(1,500* 80) - (1,500 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
120,000 - 48,000 - 72,000 = 0? True!

Question 2: If they increase their expenses by 16,000, what is their new break even point?

(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 - 16000 = 0.
80x - 32x - 88000 = 0
48x = 88000
x = 1833

Question 3: 10% reduction in selling price and 10% increase in sales. (Assuming based off the original formula the problem provided.)

Original: (2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?

10% Reduction in price: 8
80-8 = 72

10% increase in sales: 200
2000 + 200 = 2200

Plugin to our formula:
(2200 * 72) - (2200 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
158400 - 70400 - 72,000 = 16,000

Since this number is positive, this is income. (D)
7 0
3 years ago
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