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xz_007 [3.2K]
2 years ago
6

A. Why don't we hear the sound of oscillation of secondpendulum?​

Physics
2 answers:
Alja [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

because the frequency is too low for humans to hear.

Explanation:

horrorfan [7]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

we cannot hear the sound produced due to vibrations of a seconds' pendulum.

Explanation:

This is because the frequency of sound produced as a result of vibrations of seconds' pendulum is 0.5Hz0.5Hz which is infrasonic sound.

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the pressure of gas in a cylinder is 70 kilopascals. if the volume of the cylinder is reduced from 8.0 liters to 4.0 liters, wha
Olegator [25]
By Boyle's law:

P₁V₁ = P₂V₂

70*8 = P<span>₂*4

</span>P<span>₂*4 = 70*8
</span>
P<span>₂ = 70*8/4 = 140
</span>
P<span>₂ = 140 kiloPascals.</span>
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PLEASE HELP Due Soon!
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

Explanation:  

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3 years ago
At what point on the hill will the car have zero gravitational potential energy?
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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An electron moves with velocity v⃗ =(5.8i−6.7j)×104m/s in a magnetic field B⃗ =(−0.81i+0.60j)T.
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

Fₓ = 0,  F_{y} = 0  and  F_{z}<em> = - 3.115 10⁻¹⁵   N</em>

Explanation:

The magnetic force given by the expression

       F = q v xB

the bold are vectors,  the easiest analytical way to determine this force in solving the determinant

   F = q \left[\begin{array}{ccc}i&j&k\\5.8&-6.7&0\\-0.81&0.6&0\end{array}\right]  10^{4}

   F = 1.6 10⁻¹⁵ [ i( 0-0) + j (0-0) + k^( 5.8 0.60 - 0.81 67) ]

   F =i^0 + j^0   - k^  3.115 10⁻¹⁵   N

   

Fₓ = 0

F_{y} = 0

F_{z}<em> = - 3.115 10⁻¹⁵   N</em>

6 0
3 years ago
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