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Tcecarenko [31]
3 years ago
8

Tenses ofwrite=read=​

Physics
1 answer:
PilotLPTM [1.2K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

present

Explanation:

read doesn't change but write is in present tense

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stira [4]
I don’t even know I’m so dumb.
7 0
3 years ago
A force of 10 n acts on a mass of 5 kg producing an acceleration of 1.5 m/s2 what is the magnitude of the force of friction acti
prisoha [69]
The friction is 2.5N. The Net force is 10 N - 2.5 N .= 7.5 N.
acceleration = 7.5 / 5 = 1.5 m/s^2
8 0
3 years ago
Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

1)

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

F=qvB sin \theta

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

\theta=65^{\circ} is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N

2)

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

3)

The right hand rule gives the direction of the  force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

4)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

r=\frac{mv}{qB}

where here we have:

m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg is the mass of the alpha particle

v=2155 m/s is the speed of the alpha particle

q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m

5)

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}

where here:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz

6)

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

7)

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

\Delta t is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if \Delta \Phi \neq 0, which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.

8)

The flux is calculated as

\Phi = BA sin \theta

where

B = 5.5 T is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=18^{\circ} is the angle between the  direction of the field and the plane of the loop

Here the loop is rectangular with lenght 15 cm and width 8 cm, so the area is

A=(0.15 m)(0.08 m)=0.012 m^2

So the flux is

\Phi = (5.5)(0.012)(sin 18^{\circ})=0.021 Wb

See the last 7 answers in the attached document.

Download docx
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> docx </span>
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> pdf </span>
5 0
3 years ago
A 7.00-kg object accelerates from rest to a final velocity in 55 seconds. If the magnitude of the
Len [333]

Answer:

The final velocity of the object is 330 m/s.

Explanation:

To solve this problem, we first must find the acceleration of the object.  We can do this using Newton's Second Law, given by the following equation:

F = ma

If we plug in the values that we are given in the problem, we get:

42 = 7 (a)

To solve for a, we simply divide both sides of the equation by 7.

42/7 = 7a/7

a = 6 m/s^2

Next, we should write out all of the information we have and what we are looking for.

a = 6 m/s^2

v1 = 0 m/s

t  = 55 s

v2 = ?

We can use a kinematic equation to solve this problem.  We should use:

v2 = v1 + at

If we plug in the values listed above, we should get:

v2 = 0 + (6)(55)

Next, we should solve the problem by performing the multiplication on the right side of the equation.

v2 = 330 m/s

Therefore, the final velocity reached by the object is 330 m/s.

Hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
You are given two objects of identical size, one made of aluminum and the other of lead. You hang each object separately from a
ollegr [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

Volume of lead object = volume of aluminium object = V

mass of lead object > mass of aluminium object

When both the objects immersed in water, the buoyant force acting on both the objects.

Buoyant force = Volume immersed  x density of water x gravity

As the volume of both the objects is same, so the buoyant force acting on both the objects is same.

So, weight in air of lead object is more than the weight in air of aluminium object.  

7 0
3 years ago
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