Answer:
Final angular velocity is 35rpm
Explanation:
Angular velocity is given by the equation:
I1w1i + I2w2i = I1w1f -I2w2f
But the two disks are identical, so Ii =I2
wf can be calculated using
wf = w1i - w2i/2
Given: w1i =50rpm w2i= 30rpm
wf= (50 + 20) / 2
wf= 70/2 = 35rpm
The answer to the question presented above would be PAR-Q or the <span>Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire. The purpose of this questionnaire is to identify if you have any medical risks and to know your overall medical background for future reference of prevention of complications whenever you're training.</span>
How many km go into mm? Also how many cm go into km?
1km = 1000m = 1000 x 1000 mm.
1000,000 mm go into 1 km.
0.000,001 km into 1mm
---
1km = 1000m = 1000 x 100 cm.
100,000 cm go into 1 km.
0.000,01 km into 1cm
Answer:
G. 93 m
Explanation:
Applying the equation of motion,
s = ut + 1/2at²........................ Equation 1
Where s = distance, u = initial velocity, t = time, a = acceleration.
Given: u = 0 m/s ( at rest), a = 3.3 m/s², t = 7.5 s.
Substitute into equation 1
s = 0(7.5) + 1/2(3.3)(7.5)²
s = 0 + 185.625/2
s = 185.625/2
s = 92.8
s ≈ 93 m
Hence the right option is G. 93 m
The acceleration will be 10 m/s² if the force is doubled. Option C is correct.
<h2>What is Force?</h2>
It can be defined as the product of the mass of the object and its acceleration.
Where,
- force = 45 N
- mass = ?
- acceleration = 5 m/s²
Now, put the values in the formula,
Now if force doubled then the acceleration will be
Therefore, the acceleration will be 10 m/s² if the force is doubled.
Learn more about Force:
brainly.com/question/1979377