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melamori03 [73]
3 years ago
6

it took 3.5 hours for a train to travel a distance between two cities at a velocity of 120 miles per hour how many miles Live be

tween the two cities ​
Physics
2 answers:
sweet [91]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

420 miles

Explanation:

here's the solution :-

distance = speed × time

=》distance = 3.5 × 120

=》distance = 420 miles

AveGali [126]3 years ago
3 0

hope this helps........

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Kaylis [27]
Is it just me or can anyone else not see a graph? (Because I can’t)
8 0
4 years ago
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Make the following conversion. 34.9 cL = _____ hL. 0.349 0.0349 0.00349 349,000
AnnyKZ [126]
Hey there!

Here is your answer:

<u><em>The proper answer to this question is option C "</em></u><span><u><em>0.00349".</em></u>

Reason:

</span><span><u><em>1 L = 100 cL. Or 1 cL = 0.01 L</em></u>

</span><span><u><em>34.9 cL = 34.9 / 100 L = 0.349 L</em></u>

</span><span><u><em> 1 hL = 100 L. 0.349 L = 0.349 / 100 hL = 0.00349 hL</em></u>

<em>Therefore the answer is option C!</em>

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!

~Nonportrit</span>
4 0
3 years ago
A particle with mass 1.81*10^-3kg and a charge of 1.22*10^-8C has, at a given instant, a velocity v= (3.0*10^4 m/s)j.
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

a = -0.33 m/s² k^

Direction: negative

Explanation:

From Newton's law of motion, we know that;

F = ma

Now, from magnetic fields, we know that;. F = qVB

Thus;

ma = qVB

Where;

m is mass

a is acceleration

q is charge

V is velocity

B is magnetic field

We are given;

m = 1.81 × 10^(−3) kg

q = 1.22 × 10 ^(−8) C

V = (3.00 × 10⁴ m/s) ȷ^.

B = (1.63T) ı^ + (0.980T) ȷ^

Thus, since we are looking for acceleration, from, ma = qVB; let's make a the subject;

a = qVB/m

a = [(1.22 × 10 ^(−8)) × (3.00 × 10⁴)ȷ^ × ((1.63T) ı^ + (0.980T) ȷ^)]/(1.81 × 10^(−3))

From vector multiplication, ȷ^ × ȷ^ = 0 and ȷ^ × i^ = -k^

Thus;

a = -0.33 m/s² k^

7 0
3 years ago
Priyadarshini means..........​
Blizzard [7]

Answer:

A submission from India says the name Priyadharshini means "Beloved and pleasing to look at" and is of Sanskrit origin. According to a user from India, the name Priyadharshini is of Indian (Sanskrit) origin and means "God gift".

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 0.0250-kg bullet is accelerated from rest to a speed of 550 m/s in a 3.00-kg rifle. The pain of the rifle’s kick is much worse
kondaur [170]

Answer:

a) 4.583 m/s

b) 31.505 J

c) 0.491 m/s

d) 3.375 J

e)

   p_player = (110 kg)(8 m/s) = 880 kg m/s

   p_ball = (0.41 kg)(25 m/s) = 10.25 kg m/s

Explanation:

HI!

a)

We can calculate the recoil velocity by conservation of momentum, remember that p=mv.

The momentum of the bullet is:

p_b = (0.0250 kg)*(550 m/s )

The momentum of the rifle is:

p_r = (3 kg) * v

Since the total initial momentum is zero:

p_b = p_r

That is:

v = (550 m/s ) (0.0250 kg/ 3 kg ) = 4.583 m/s

b)

The kinetic energy gained by the rifle is:

K = (1/2) m v^2 = (1/2) *(3 kg) *(4.583 m/s)^2 = 31.505 J

c)

We use the same formula as in a), but with m=28kg instead of 3 kg

v = (550 m/s ) (0.0250 kg/ 28 kg ) = 0.491 m/s

d)

Again, the same formula as b, but with m=28 and v=0.491 m/s

K = 3.375 J

e)

p_player = (110 kg)(8 m/s) = 880 kg m/s

p_ball = (0.41 kg)(25 m/s) = 10.25 kg m/s

I believe that the kinetic energy is more related to the problem than the momentum. The relation between these two quantities is:

K = p^2/(2m)

usiing this relation, we get:

K_player = 3520 J

K_ball =  128.125 J

Therefore the kinetic energy of the player is around 27 time larger than the kinetic energy of the ball, that being said, the pain of being tackled by that player is around 27 times greater that being hit by the ball!

4 0
3 years ago
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